HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
2. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
- B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
- C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
- D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.
3. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
- D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
4. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?
- A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
- B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
- C. Observe the skin for bruising.
- D. Measure the body temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
- B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
- C. Barrel chest appearance
- D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.
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