a male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough what is the nurses prio
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged home. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pursed-lip breathing helps control breathing and improves oxygen exchange in clients with COPD. It can ease shortness of breath during activities and should be included in discharge teaching to manage symptoms. Option A is incorrect as adequate fluid intake is important for thinning mucus in COPD. Option B is wrong as physical activity, as tolerated, is beneficial for COPD patients. Option D is also incorrect because changing oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

3. While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diuretics must be continued as long as the fluid problem persists to prevent heart failure symptoms.

4. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.

5. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in managing osteoporosis as they help strengthen bones. Choice A is the correct answer because weight-bearing activities, such as walking, dancing, or weight training, help stimulate bone formation and strengthen bones, which is essential in managing osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on the type of exercise rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding exercise altogether can lead to further bone density loss, and it is important to engage in safe weight-bearing activities. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of exercise in osteoporosis is to improve bone density through weight-bearing activities.

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