Nursing Elites

1. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?

• A. Disconnect the client from the ventilator and use a manual resuscitation bag
• B. Perform a quick assessment of the client's condition
• C. Call the respiratory therapist for help
• D. Press the alarm reset button on the ventilator

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition when the high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. This assessment is crucial to determine the cause of the alarm and the client's current status. Option A is incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator without assessing the situation can be harmful. Option C is incorrect as the nurse should first assess the client before seeking additional help. Option D is incorrect because resetting the alarm without understanding the underlying issue may lead to potential risks to the client.

3. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Inspect the PICC insertion site for signs of infection.
• B. Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds for signs of respiratory distress.
• D. Check for signs of phlebitis or thrombosis along the catheter site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Observing the antecubital fossa for inflammation is crucial in clients with a PICC line and fever. Inflammation at the site can indicate infection or complications related to the PICC line. Auscultating lung sounds (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Checking for phlebitis or thrombosis (choice D) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of identifying infection or complications at the insertion site. Inspecting the PICC insertion site (choice A) is also important but observing the antecubital fossa provides a more direct assessment of potential issues with the PICC line.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the postoperative unit after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
• B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
• C. Total calcium 5.0 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A total calcium level of 5.0 mg/dL is critically low and indicates possible hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroid surgery. This condition can lead to tetany and requires immediate intervention. Blood glucose within normal range, sodium, and potassium levels are not indicative of an immediate postoperative complication like hypocalcemia in this case.

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