Nursing Elites

1. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

2. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?

• A. Medicaid
• B. Medicare
• C. COBRA
• D. Private insurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.

3. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
• B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
• C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
• D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.

4. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor gastrointestinal pain
• B. Ask the client about pain levels
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Assess for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

5. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
• B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
• C. Administer platelet transfusion.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.

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