HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. After completing her first chemotherapy treatment, what behavior indicates that a female client with breast cancer understands her discharge care needs?
- A. She refuses to take anti-nausea medication.
- B. She rents movies and borrows books to pass time at home.
- C. She plans to resume strenuous physical activity immediately.
- D. She reports severe fatigue and inability to perform daily activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Renting movies and borrowing books for use during recovery indicates the client is planning restful activities at home, which aligns with appropriate post-chemotherapy care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because refusing anti-nausea medication can lead to complications, resuming strenuous physical activity immediately can be harmful, and reporting severe fatigue and inability to perform daily activities may indicate a need for medical attention rather than understanding discharge care needs.
2. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
- C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
- D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.
3. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is complaining of increased shortness of breath. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Check for kinks in the chest tube tubing.
- B. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- D. Prepare for chest tube replacement.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a chest tube experiencing increased shortness of breath is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. This position promotes lung expansion, improves oxygenation, and can help relieve shortness of breath. Checking for kinks in the chest tube tubing would be important but not the first action in this situation. Assessing the client's lung sounds is also important but not the initial priority. Preparing for chest tube replacement is not indicated based solely on the client's complaint of increased shortness of breath.
4. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which of the following should be emphasized?
- A. Increase daily intake of sodium.
- B. Exercise regularly and maintain a healthy weight.
- C. Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Drink alcohol in moderation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial lifestyle changes in managing hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and improves heart health, while maintaining a healthy weight reduces the risk of hypertension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing daily intake of sodium can elevate blood pressure, reducing intake of potassium-rich foods is not recommended as potassium helps lower blood pressure, and drinking alcohol should be limited or avoided as it can raise blood pressure.
5. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb.
- B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
- C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
- D. Offer to assist the client to a quieter location to relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.
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