a female client reports feeling hopeless and is unable to stop crying she explains that she is worried about losing her job since the clients husband
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. To evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral techniques, which client outcomes should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing thought patterns by guiding the client to engage in problem-solving strategies to address the current situation. This approach helps individuals modify negative thinking patterns and develop more adaptive ways to cope with challenges. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be important aspects to consider in therapy, the primary focus in cognitive-behavioral therapy is on identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than exploring relationships or family problem-solving skills.

2. The nurse is developing unit policies that will include nursing guidelines for maintaining a therapeutic milieu. Which interventions should be included when providing a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is responsible for maintaining a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting, which involves creating a secure and structured environment that promotes client safety and offers opportunities for clients to learn healthy coping skills. Regularly scheduled unit activities for peer interaction help foster socialization, support, and a sense of community among clients. Choices A and B are valuable interventions in mental health care but do not directly relate to creating a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting. Choice D, home visits, would typically occur post-discharge and focus on community reintegration, rather than maintaining a therapeutic milieu within the inpatient setting.

3. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

4. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

5. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, “I’m so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep.” The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.

Similar Questions

The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?
During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?
A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?
A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?
A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

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