NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. A female adolescent has anorexia nervosa and is malnourished and severely underweight. Which statement indicates that she is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior?
- A. "I'm huge; I'm as big as a house."
- B. "I get straight A's in all my subjects."
- C. "My mother keeps trying to get me to eat."
- D. "My hair is beginning to fall out in clumps."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The statement "My mother keeps trying to get me to eat" indicates that the adolescent is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior. This is because the behavior has garnered attention from her mother, providing a sense of power and control, which are considered secondary gains. The statement "I'm huge; I'm as big as a house" reflects a disturbed body perception and is not related to secondary gains. Getting straight A's in all subjects is an achievement but not a secondary gain related to anorexia nervosa. The hair falling out in clumps is a physical consequence of starvation, not a secondary gain.
2. The nurse transcribes the postoperative prescriptions for a client who returns to the unit following surgery and notes that an antihypertensive medication that was prescribed preoperatively is not listed. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Consult with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication.
- B. Administer the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively.
- C. Withhold the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable.
- D. Contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse has noted that an antihypertensive medication prescribed preoperatively is missing from the postoperative prescriptions. It is essential to renew preoperative medications postoperatively. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the health care provider to renew the prescription for the antihypertensive medication. Consulting with the pharmacist about the need to continue the medication is not appropriate in this situation as pharmacists do not prescribe or renew medications. Administering the antihypertensive medication as prescribed preoperatively without a current prescription poses a risk to the client's safety. Withholding the medication until the client is fully alert and vital signs are stable does not address the issue of the missing prescription and delays the client's necessary treatment.
3. Which behavioral characteristic describes the domestic abuser?
- A. Alcoholic
- B. Overconfident
- C. High tolerance for frustrations
- D. Low self-esteem
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low self-esteem.' Domestic abusers often exhibit behaviors stemming from their own experiences of abuse, leading to a cycle of violence. They commonly have low self-esteem, which drives their need to exert control and power over their partners. Choice A, 'Alcoholic,' is not a defining behavioral characteristic of domestic abusers. Choice B, 'Overconfident,' is not typically associated with abusers who often exhibit insecurity and control issues. Choice C, 'High tolerance for frustrations,' is not a primary characteristic of domestic abusers; rather, they often have a low tolerance for situations that challenge their need for control.
4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
5. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
- A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
- B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
- C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
- D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.
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