a female adolescent has anorexia nervosa and is malnourished and severely underweight which statement indicates that she is experiencing secondary gai
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. A female adolescent has anorexia nervosa and is malnourished and severely underweight. Which statement indicates that she is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement "My mother keeps trying to get me to eat" indicates that the adolescent is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior. This is because the behavior has garnered attention from her mother, providing a sense of power and control, which are considered secondary gains. The statement "I'm huge; I'm as big as a house" reflects a disturbed body perception and is not related to secondary gains. Getting straight A's in all subjects is an achievement but not a secondary gain related to anorexia nervosa. The hair falling out in clumps is a physical consequence of starvation, not a secondary gain.

2. Which is an example of an intentional tort?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: False imprisonment is a clear example of an intentional tort where one person deliberately confines another without lawful justification. It involves intentional, wrongful restraint of a person's freedom of movement. Negligence, on the other hand, is an unintentional tort that occurs when someone fails to exercise reasonable care, resulting in harm to others. Malpractice, which involves professional negligence, is also classified as an unintentional tort as it is a failure to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession. Breach of duty, while a legal concept, is not an example of an intentional tort. It refers to a failure to fulfill a legal obligation or duty owed to another party, often leading to legal consequences, but it is not categorized as an intentional tort.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

4. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.

5. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

Similar Questions

The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?
A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?
Which psychosocial attribute plays an important role in the development of a healthy personality from birth to 1 year of age?
The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
A client who has multiple sclerosis is admitted to the hospital with increasingly frequent and severe exacerbations. One day, the client's partner confides to the nurse, 'Life is getting very hard and depressing, and I am upset with myself for thinking about a nursing home.' After listening to the partner's concerns, which response would the nurse make?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses