which of the following is an age related developmental task for a 68 year old client
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.

2. After being medicated for anxiety, the client says to the nurse, 'I guess you are too busy to stay with me.' Which response by the nurse is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should respond with empathy and reassurance to address the client's emotional needs. The correct response, 'I have to go now, but I will come back in 10 minutes,' acknowledges the client's feelings while providing a timeframe for the nurse's return, showing care and concern. Choice A, 'I'm so sorry, but I need to see other clients,' prioritizes other tasks over the client's emotional needs, which can increase anxiety. Choice C, 'You'll be able to rest after the medicine starts working,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's immediate emotional distress. Choice D, 'You'll feel better after I've made you more comfortable,' does not acknowledge the client's concerns and fails to establish a supportive connection with the client.

3. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

4. What is the priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn is providing time for the father to be alone with and get to know the baby. Time alone provides the opportunity for paternal-infant attachment and bonding, which can help reduce the father's anxiety. Encouraging the father to participate in a parenting class, although helpful, does not directly address the immediate need for bonding. Offering a demonstration on newborn care tasks like diapering, feeding, and bathing may not effectively address the father's anxiety at that moment, as he may not be ready to absorb such information. Allowing time for the father to ask questions after viewing a film about a new baby is a simplistic approach that may not adequately address the emotional needs and concerns of the father regarding bonding with his newborn.

5. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.

Similar Questions

At a senior citizens meeting, a healthcare professional talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity?
The client is still unable to sleep despite following the progressive muscle relaxation technique routine taught by the nurse. Which action should the nurse take first?
Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?
A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses