NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
2. An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?
- A. Assess for feelings of loneliness and isolation.
- B. Determine if the client has unresolved grief.
- C. Determine if there are safety issues.
- D. Ask about the availability of support systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.
3. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
4. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?
- A. Left brachial vein
- B. Right cephalic vein
- C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
- D. Right upper extremity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.
5. What is the primary purpose served when an individual takes action to reduce anxiety?
- A. Reduction of tension
- B. Denial of the situation
- C. Avoidance of physical discomfort
- D. Resolution in decision-making
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of taking action to reduce anxiety is to alleviate emotional tension and prevent the exacerbation of anxiety symptoms. By reducing tension, anxiety levels decrease, leading to a sense of comfort, safety, and security. Denial of the situation is not the goal when addressing anxiety; rather, acknowledging and managing it is crucial. While physical discomfort may accompany anxiety, the focus is on alleviating the emotional aspect to mitigate physical manifestations. Although mild anxiety can sometimes improve decision-making skills, higher levels of anxiety typically impede cognitive functions, making resolution in decision-making less likely.
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