NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
2. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?
- A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
- B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
- C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.
3. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?
- A. Left brachial vein
- B. Right cephalic vein
- C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
- D. Right upper extremity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.
4. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
- A. Galactorrhea
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
5. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Error in judgment
- C. Delusion of persecution
- D. Self-accusatory delusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'
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