a client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin a1c of 10 what actions should the nurse inc
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.

2. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.

3. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.

4. The nurse prepares a discharge plan for an older adult client following cataract extraction. What instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide after cataract extraction is to advise the client to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure, which should be minimized post-surgery to promote healing and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting sunlight exposure, irrigating the conjunctiva with saline, and reading without direct lighting are not primary instructions following cataract extraction.

5. A client recently started on warfarin therapy. What laboratory value is most important to monitor for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor for clients on warfarin therapy. PT helps determine how long it takes blood to clot and ensures the warfarin dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent either excessive bleeding or clotting. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but PT is more specific to warfarin therapy. Creatinine level and BUN are indicators of kidney function and are not directly related to warfarin therapy.

Similar Questions

A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?
A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
When assessing constipation in elders, what action should be the nurse's priority?
An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses