Nursing Elites

1. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin to manage glucose levels.
• B. Teaching foot care to prevent injuries.
• C. Coordinating carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections.
• D. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.

2. A client with a prescription for DNR begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider
• B. Determine the client's need for pain medication
• C. Begin comfort measures
• D. Ensure all life-saving equipment is removed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's need for pain medication. Ensuring that the client is comfortable and free from pain is crucial in end-of-life care, especially for a client with a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. This action prioritizes the client's comfort and dignity in their final moments. While informing the healthcare provider and beginning comfort measures are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence as the immediate priority. Removing life-saving equipment is not appropriate at this stage as it goes against the client's wishes stated in the DNR order.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

• A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
• C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
• D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.

4. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

5. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

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