HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?
- A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
- B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
- C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
- D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.
2. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client with pneumonia who has a fever of 101.5°F
- B. Client who underwent knee surgery and needs dressing change
- C. Client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus experiencing abdominal rigidity
- D. Client with diabetes requesting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction could indicate peritonitis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention. Volvulus, a twisting of the intestine, can lead to bowel ischemia and necrosis. Clients with pneumonia (choice A) may need assessment and treatment for infection, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as a bowel obstruction. A client who underwent knee surgery (choice B) needing a dressing change can typically wait for assessment compared to a potential surgical emergency. Similarly, a client with diabetes requesting insulin (choice D) may require attention to maintain blood glucose levels, but it is not as urgent as a suspected bowel obstruction with possible peritonitis.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
4. A nurse finds a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest. What modification to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer chest compressions at a faster rate.
- B. Position a firm wedge under the client’s pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree tilt.
- C. Position the client flat with legs elevated.
- D. Call for immediate assistance and prepare for a cesarean section.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation, performing CPR requires tilting the pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on the vena cava, ensuring proper circulation during compressions. Administering chest compressions at a faster rate (Choice A) may not address the specific needs of a pregnant client in cardiac arrest. Positioning the client flat with legs elevated (Choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen vena cava compression. Calling for immediate assistance and preparing for a cesarean section (Choice D) should be considered only after initiating appropriate CPR modifications.
5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
- C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
- D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.
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