Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.

3. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

4. When performing sterile wound care in the acute care setting, the nurse obtains a bottle of normal saline from the bedside table that is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Use the normal saline solution once more and then discard.
• B. Obtain a new sterile syringe to draw up the labeled saline solution.
• C. Use the saline solution and then relabel the bottle with the current date.
• D. Discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing sterile wound care, it is essential to use only newly opened and unexpired solutions to maintain sterility and prevent infections. The normal saline solution obtained by the nurse is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date, making it no longer considered sterile. The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle to ensure the safety and effectiveness of wound care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reusing an already opened and outdated solution or attempting to relabel it with a current date can compromise patient safety and increase the risk of infection.

5. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

Similar Questions