Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

2. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

3. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:

• A. Asystole
• B. Bigeminy
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

4. When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.

5. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour.
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with limited mobility to prevent venous thrombosis is to perform dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the feet 10 times each hour. These exercises help promote venous return, reducing the risk of thrombosis by preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. While other measures like turning in bed and staying hydrated are beneficial, promoting venous return through foot exercises is the priority in preventing venous thrombosis in clients with limited mobility. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion directly target the calf muscle pump, aiding in the circulation of blood back to the heart and preventing clot formation. The other options, such as cough and deep breathing exercises, turning in bed, and hydration, are important for overall health but do not directly address venous stasis and thrombosis prevention in the same way as foot exercises.

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