Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?

• A. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Increased respirations and an increase in pH
• D. Comatose state

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, reflected by a low plasma bicarbonate. Elevated blood glucose levels are a hallmark of DKA due to the body's inability to use glucose properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urine output is not a specific finding associated with DKA. Increased respirations and an increase in pH are not typical in DKA; in fact, respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis in DKA leads to Kussmaul breathing (deep, rapid breathing). A comatose state may occur in severe cases of DKA but is not a confirming finding for the diagnosis.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

3. Which of the following best describes the nurse's responsibility in obtaining informed consent?

• A. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the patient understands the procedure and has the opportunity to ask questions.
• B. The nurse should ensure that the patient signs the consent form before the procedure begins.
• C. The nurse is responsible for witnessing the patient sign the consent form and documenting the event.
• D. The nurse should delegate the task of obtaining informed consent to another healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider, in this case, the nurse, ensures that the patient understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives before they agree to it. The nurse plays a crucial role in facilitating this understanding by explaining the information in a clear and understandable manner and providing the patient with the opportunity to ask questions. Choice B is incorrect because merely obtaining the patient's signature on the consent form does not ensure that the patient truly understands what they are consenting to. Choice C is not fully accurate as the nurse's role goes beyond just witnessing the signature; it involves actively ensuring the patient's comprehension. Choice D is incorrect as the responsibility of obtaining informed consent should not be delegated to another healthcare provider, as it is the nurse's duty to ensure proper communication and understanding with the patient.

4. A female client with Cushing's syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the admission assessment, Nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated, irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These findings are consistent with which problem?

• A. Depression
• B. Neuropathy
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Depression is a common psychological manifestation in clients with Cushing's syndrome. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and disheveled appearance are indicative of depressive symptoms rather than neuropathy, hypoglycemia, or hyperthyroidism. Neuropathy typically presents with sensory changes and motor deficits, which are not described in the scenario. Hypoglycemia would manifest with symptoms such as diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion, which are not mentioned. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

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