NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. A client who has multiple sclerosis is admitted to the hospital with increasingly frequent and severe exacerbations. One day, the client's partner confides to the nurse, 'Life is getting very hard and depressing, and I am upset with myself for thinking about a nursing home.' After listening to the partner's concerns, which response would the nurse make?
- A. 'Joining a support group of people who are coping with this situation may be helpful.'
- B. 'You may be able to decrease your feelings of guilt by seeking counseling.'
- C. 'It would be helpful if you became involved in volunteer work at this time.'
- D. 'I recognize it's hard to deal with, but try to remember that this, too, shall pass.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Joining a support group of individuals facing similar circumstances can provide valuable support and the opportunity to share experiences, making it the most appropriate response. The response suggesting counseling to decrease feelings of guilt is premature because the partner did not directly express guilt and it may not be the most immediate need. Suggesting involvement in volunteer work at this time fails to address the partner's current emotional distress and may come across as dismissive. Offering false reassurance by stating 'this, too, shall pass' does not validate the partner's feelings and minimizes the seriousness of their concerns.
2. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
3. What is the primary purpose served when an individual takes action to reduce anxiety?
- A. Reduction of tension
- B. Denial of the situation
- C. Avoidance of physical discomfort
- D. Resolution in decision-making
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of taking action to reduce anxiety is to alleviate emotional tension and prevent the exacerbation of anxiety symptoms. By reducing tension, anxiety levels decrease, leading to a sense of comfort, safety, and security. Denial of the situation is not the goal when addressing anxiety; rather, acknowledging and managing it is crucial. While physical discomfort may accompany anxiety, the focus is on alleviating the emotional aspect to mitigate physical manifestations. Although mild anxiety can sometimes improve decision-making skills, higher levels of anxiety typically impede cognitive functions, making resolution in decision-making less likely.
4. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?
- A. Walking the mother to the elevator
- B. Encouraging the mother to spend the night
- C. Staying with the child while the mother leaves
- D. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.
5. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
- C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
- D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.
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