HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?
- A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
- B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
- C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
- D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.
2. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?
- A. Creamed peas
- B. Cottage cheese
- C. Chocolate pudding
- D. Applesauce
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.
3. A nurse is reviewing a client's admission laboratory findings that indicate the client has hyponatremia. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be below the expected reference range?
- A. Magnesium
- B. Calcium
- C. Chloride
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chloride. Chloride levels are typically low in cases of hyponatremia, as it often accompanies sodium loss. Magnesium (choice A) is not directly related to hyponatremia. Calcium (choice B) and Potassium (choice D) levels are usually not significantly affected by hyponatremia, making them less likely to be below the expected reference range in this scenario.
4. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
- A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
- B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
- C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
- D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.
5. A parent asks the school nurse how to eliminate lice from their child. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Cut the child's hair short to remove the nits
- B. Apply warm soaks to the head twice daily
- C. Wash the child's linen and clothing in a bleach solution
- D. Application of pediculicides
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pediculicides are the recommended treatment for lice and should be used to eliminate the infestation.
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