Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

• A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
• B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
• C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
• D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

2. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?

• A. Change in libido, breast enlargement
• B. Sore throat, fever
• C. Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea
• D. Dsypnea, nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.

3. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Pulverize all medications into a powdery condition
• B. Squeeze the tube before using it to break up stagnant liquids
• C. Cleanse the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide
• D. Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, flushing the tube adequately with water before and after use is essential. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures the proper administration of feedings and medications. Choice A is incorrect because pulverizing all medications into a powdery condition is not necessary for PEG tube administration. Choice B is incorrect as squeezing the tube to break up stagnant liquids may damage the tube. Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and lead to skin irritation.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a colostomy about appropriate food choices. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Eggs
• B. Grapes
• C. Pasta
• D. Dried fruits

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are a good protein source and are less likely to cause blockage or odor issues in clients with colostomies. Grapes, pasta, and dried fruits can be problematic for individuals with colostomies as they may cause digestive issues, blockages, or increased gas production. Grapes have skins that are hard to digest, pasta can cause constipation or blockage, and dried fruits are high in fiber which can lead to blockages.

5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
• C. Venous blood pH 7.30
• D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

Similar Questions