a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of these statements made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping medications when blood sugar levels are normal can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels if the individual does not understand the importance of medication adherence in managing diabetes. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that demonstrate good understanding of managing diabetes, such as monitoring blood glucose levels, following a meal plan, exercising regularly, and adhering to medication even when feeling better.

3. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

5. A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.

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