a client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

2. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

3. A client with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is admitted with chest pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). This action is crucial in assessing the heart's electrical activity and helps in the evaluation of chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after obtaining the ECG to confirm the diagnosis. Checking vital signs (Choice C) is important but does not provide direct information about the heart's electrical status. Placing the client on continuous telemetry (Choice D) may be appropriate later but does not provide immediate information on the heart's electrical activity as an ECG does.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What client teaching is essential?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine, which can be reduced by maintaining adequate hydration. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding sunlight exposure is more relevant for medications that cause photosensitivity, not typically a concern with ciprofloxacin. Choice D is less essential than choice A because while reporting changes in urine color is important, preventing crystalluria through adequate fluid intake is a higher priority.

5. A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). What should the nurse prioritize in this client's care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO), the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's intake and output. This is crucial for assessing the client's fluid balance and ensuring that they are not becoming dehydrated or developing complications related to fluid status. Option A is incorrect because oral pain medication should not be administered to a client who is NPO. Option C is not the priority at this time, although monitoring for infection is important in the overall care of the client. Option D is not the initial priority unless there are specific indications for decompression, which would be determined by the healthcare provider.

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