Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours.
• B. Monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
• D. Check the client's temperature every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.

3. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
• C. Assess for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes crepitus around a chest tube site, it could indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a potentially serious condition where air gets trapped under the skin. Measuring the area of swelling and crackling is important as it helps monitor the progression of subcutaneous emphysema. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might not address the underlying cause and could potentially worsen the condition. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for crepitus at a chest tube site. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when crepitus is observed.

4. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

• A. I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and among women my age, between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occur more frequently.
• B. My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
• C. The associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention, and constipation.
• D. Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that do not cause symptoms do not necessarily need to be removed unless they pose other health risks. Choice A provides accurate information about the prevalence of fibroids among women of the woman's age group. Choice B correctly describes fibroids as noncancerous tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with fibroids, which is relevant information. However, choice D is incorrect as fibroids that are asymptomatic or not causing problems usually do not require treatment, unless they lead to complications or health risks.

5. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
• C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
• D. Discontinue the furosemide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.

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