Nursing Elites

1. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

2. When monitoring a client for acute toxicity associated with bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), what sign should the nurse check for to indicate toxicity?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Signs of dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Toxicity from bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can lead to excessive muscarinic stimulation, resulting in manifestations like salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. When facing toxicity, treatment involves supportive measures and administering atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.

3. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psychomotor seizures. The nurse reviews the client's health history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated if which of the following disorders is present?

• A. Headaches
• B. Liver disease
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is contraindicated in liver disease due to its potential to cause hepatic toxicity. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is necessary when using this medication to detect any signs of liver damage.

4. The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse understands that this medication is used for which condition?

• A. Constipation
• B. Abdominal pain
• C. An episode of diarrhea
• D. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal medication commonly used to manage episodes of diarrhea. It works by slowing down gut movement and reducing the frequency of bowel movements. Loperamide is not indicated for constipation, abdominal pain, or hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage. It is specifically useful in acute and chronic diarrhea, such as in cases of inflammatory bowel disease, to help control symptoms and decrease fluid loss.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?

• A. I will avoid potassium-rich foods.
• B. I will not use a salt substitute.
• C. I will monitor my weight daily.
• D. I will increase my fluid intake as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.

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