Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• B. Restrict the child’s fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Measure the child’s abdominal girth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of a 6-month-old infant with GERD. What instruction should the healthcare provider include when teaching the parents measures to promote adequate nutrition?

• A. Alternate glucose water with formula
• B. Mix the formula with rice cereal
• C. Add multivitamins with iron to the formula
• D. Use water to dilute the formula

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for promoting adequate nutrition in a 6-month-old infant with GERD is to mix the formula with rice cereal. This thickens the feed, reducing the risk of reflux, aiding in proper nutrition, and minimizing GERD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Alternating glucose water with formula, adding multivitamins with iron to the formula, or diluting the formula with water are not recommended measures for promoting adequate nutrition in infants with GERD.

3. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

4. A 12-year-old male is brought to the clinic after falling during a skateboarding trick. The child's vital signs are heart rate 135 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 90/60. Which finding should the practical nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client complains of his back being sore.
• B. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.
• C. Blood pressure is 94/68.
• D. Peripheral pulses are weak and rapid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the 12-year-old male with a heart rate of 135 beats/minute, respirations of 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 90/60 after falling during a skateboarding trick exhibits signs of shock. Weak and rapid peripheral pulses are concerning as they may indicate decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which are signs of shock. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent potential complications. The other choices are less urgent. Complaints of back soreness (choice A) could be related to musculoskeletal injury. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds (choice B) is within the normal range, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A blood pressure of 94/68 (choice C) is slightly higher than the initial reading and may be compensatory in response to the fall and shock state.

5. The nurse determines that an infant admitted for surgical repair of an inguinal hernia voids a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document the finding
• B. Palpate scrotum for testicular descent
• C. Assess for bladder distension
• D. Auscultate bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to document the finding. The infant voiding a urinary stream from the ventral surface of the penis suggests hypospadias, a condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis. This finding is crucial information that needs to be documented for further evaluation. Palpating the scrotum for testicular descent, assessing for bladder distension, and auscultating bowel sounds are not appropriate actions based on the presented scenario and do not address the specific concern of the urinary stream location.

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