NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
2. Who among the following individuals wrote a medical code of ethics?
- A. Hammurabi
- B. Thomas Percival
- C. Hippocrates
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the above individuals contributed to the development of medical ethics. Hammurabi created the earliest known code around 2500 BC. Hippocrates, known for the principle 'Do no harm,' emphasized ethical practices in medicine. Thomas Percival, a physician interested in sociological medicine, authored a Code of Medical Ethics in 1803, which influenced modern medical ethics. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually wrote a medical code of ethics, making 'All of the above' the most inclusive and accurate answer.
3. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:
- A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
- B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
- C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.
4. A woman presents with bruises on her face and back in various stages of healing. She states, 'sometimes he just gets so angry.' Which of the following statements is most appropriate as a response from the nurse?
- A. Do you mean your boyfriend?
- B. Do you mean your boyfriend?
- C. No one will ever hurt you again.
- D. Tell me more about what happens when he gets angry.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information by asking the client to elaborate on what occurs when the individual in question gets angry. It is essential for the nurse to understand the situation better before taking any action or making assumptions. Option A and B are repetitive and do not encourage further exploration of the situation. Option C offers a false promise and reassurance that the nurse cannot guarantee, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's needs.
5. A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
- B. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
- C. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
- D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.' This statement is incorrect as delayed developmental milestones in a child with cerebral palsy require interventions and constant follow-ups. Developmental monitoring is essential to track a child's growth and development over time. If any concerns are raised during monitoring, a developmental screening test should be conducted promptly to address any developmental delays or issues. Regular interventions, therapies, and support are crucial to optimize the child's development and well-being. Therefore, it is important for parents to be aware that additional interventions may be necessary to support their child's development.
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