NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
- A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
- B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
- C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
- D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
2. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?
- A. The approximate length of the surgery
- B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
- C. The time of the next meal of solid food
- D. The length of time until the client can return to work
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.
3. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
- A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
- D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.
4. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?
- A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
- B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
- C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
- D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.
5. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client suffering from a fever?
- A. Avoid withholding food from the client
- B. Increase the client's fluid intake
- C. Provide oxygen
- D. All answers are correct
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate nursing intervention for a client suffering from a fever is to increase the client's fluid intake. A fever can elevate the body's metabolism, leading to increased breathing and heart workload. This can result in fluid loss due to heightened respiration and sweating. Moreover, the augmented heart workload may necessitate more oxygen to maintain tissue perfusion. Providing oxygen and increasing fluid intake help meet the body's heightened demands during a fever. Withholding food from the client is inappropriate as proper nutrition is crucial for recovery, and providing oxygen alone may not address the fluid and metabolic demands associated with fever. Therefore, the correct choice is to increase the client's fluid intake.
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