a 30 year old woman has recently moved to the united states with her husband they are living with the womans sister until they can get a home of their
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NCLEX-RN

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1. A 30-year-old woman has recently moved to the United States with her husband. They are living with the woman's sister until they can get a home of their own. When company arrives to visit the woman's sister, the woman feels suddenly shy and retreats to the back bedroom to hide until the company leaves. She explains that her reaction to guests is simply because she does not know how to speak "perfect English."? What is this woman likely experiencing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The woman in the scenario is likely experiencing culture shock. Culture shock is a term used to describe the state of disorientation or inability to respond to the behavior of a different cultural group due to sudden strangeness, unfamiliarity, and incompatibility with the individual's perceptions and expectations. In this case, the woman's feelings of shyness and retreating due to not feeling confident in speaking 'perfect English' align with symptoms of culture shock. The other choices are incorrect: Cultural taboos refer to behaviors or actions that are prohibited within a particular culture; cultural unfamiliarity suggests a lack of knowledge about a specific culture, which is not the case here; and culture disorientation is not a commonly used term in cultural psychology, making it an incorrect option.

2. Following hospitalization for congestive heart failure, a client is discharged. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is High Fowler's. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in the high Fowler's position helps decrease the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing in clients with congestive heart failure. This position helps reduce venous return and increases lung expansion, improving oxygenation. The supine position (choice B) may lead to increased pressure on the heart and lungs, making it less suitable for these clients. The left lateral position (choice C) is not as effective as High Fowler's in reducing cardiac workload and improving breathing. Low Fowler's position (choice D) does not provide the same benefits as the High Fowler's position for clients with congestive heart failure.

3. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

4. When a patient is standing in anatomical position, where are their feet?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person is standing in anatomical position, their feet are side by side, and they are facing forward with the toes pointing out to the sides to open the hips. This position allows for proper alignment of the body for anatomical reference. Choice A is incorrect because the feet should not be spread open, but rather side by side. Choice C is incorrect as it does not mention the correct positioning of the feet. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should not be pointed inward, but rather facing out to the sides to open the hips.

5. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

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