Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

2. An adult patient is at the clinic for a physical examination. The patient states that they are feeling 'very anxious' about the physical examination. What steps can the nurse take to make the patient more comfortable?

• A. Appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient.
• B. Leave the room when the patient undresses unless they need assistance.
• C. Ask the patient to change into an examining gown and to leave their undergarments on.
• D. Measure vital signs at the beginning of the examination to gradually accustom the patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To help alleviate the patient's anxiety, the nurse should appear unhurried and confident during the examination. This can make the patient feel more at ease and reassured. It is important for the nurse to respect the patient's privacy by leaving the room while the patient changes unless assistance is needed. The patient should be instructed to change into an examining gown while leaving their undergarments on, providing a sense of comfort and familiarity. Additionally, measuring vital signs at the beginning of the examination can help gradually acclimate the patient to the process, making it less overwhelming. Therefore, the correct answer is to appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's anxiety or provide comfort in the same way as the correct answer.

3. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

4. Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?

• A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
• B. Decreased venous return
• C. Decreased work of breathing
• D. Decreased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.

5. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?

• A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
• B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.

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