Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a patient to use the three-point gait technique of crutch use:

• A. The injured leg moves ahead at the same time as both crutches.
• B. One crutch moves at a time and is then followed by the injured leg.
• C. Both crutches move ahead at the same time followed by both legs at the same time.
• D. None of the above are correct.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for a three-point gait involves the injured leg moving simultaneously with both crutches, followed by the uninjured leg. This gait pattern is utilized when the patient is unable to bear full weight on one of their legs. Choice A accurately describes the appropriate sequence of movements for the three-point gait technique. Choices B and C do not accurately reflect the correct pattern of movement during the three-point gait technique, making them incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as there is a correct option among the choices provided.

2. In addition to standard precautions, the nurse caring for a patient with rubella would plan to implement what type of precautions?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Universal precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella is an illness transmitted by large-particle droplets, so the nurse should implement droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions. Airborne precautions are used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. Contact precautions are utilized for diseases transmitted by direct contact with the patient or their environment. Universal precautions and body substance isolations are part of the CDC's standard precautions recommendations, but do not specifically address the transmission route of rubella.

3. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

4. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

5. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

• A. Slope of the earpieces should point forward toward the examiner's nose.
• B. It blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.
• C. The tubing length should be 14 to 18 inches to prevent sound distortion.
• D. Both fit and quality of the stethoscope are important.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

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