a 3 year old with hiv infection is staying with a foster family who is caring for 3 other foster children in their home when one of the children acqui
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. A 3-year-old with HIV infection is staying with a foster family who is caring for 3 other foster children in their home. When one of the children acquires pertussis, the foster mother calls the clinic and asks the nurse what she should do. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the immunization documentation of the child with HIV to ensure they have received the necessary vaccines. This step is crucial in protecting the child's health and preventing further complications from vaccine-preventable diseases like pertussis. By reviewing the immunization documentation first, the nurse can determine the child's protection against pertussis and other infectious diseases. Removing the child from the foster home (Choice A) may not be necessary if the child is adequately vaccinated. Reporting the exposure to the health department (Choice B) and placing the child in reverse isolation (Choice C) are important steps but reviewing the immunization status takes precedence to assess the child's protection and guide further actions.

2. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

3. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

4. When assessing a 10-year-old newly diagnosed with osteomyelitis, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 10-year-old with newly diagnosed osteomyelitis, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is the recent history of infection recurrences. This is crucial because osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and assessing for any recent recurrence of infections can help in determining the possible source of the osteomyelitis and guide the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the immediate assessment of a newly diagnosed case of osteomyelitis as they do not directly impact the current infection or treatment plan.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

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