Nursing Elites

1. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

2. A client states that she is angry and feels rejected by her boyfriend. Which action would the nurse encourage?

• A. Call the boyfriend to work things out.
• B. Avoid confronting the boyfriend.
• C. Date new people whenever possible.
• D. Learn to constructively vent anger.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to learn to constructively vent anger. Coping mechanisms, such as venting anger, can help the client address feelings of rejection. Calling the boyfriend to work things out is offering unsolicited advice and may not be effective in managing emotions. Avoiding confronting the boyfriend may reduce anxiety temporarily but will not assist in resolving the underlying issues. Encouraging the client to date new people whenever possible is not appropriate at this stage, as it is essential for the client to work through the current crisis before considering new relationships.

3. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

4. A client has been diagnosed with depression, and a nurse is assisting them. Which of the following is an example of a short-term outcome as part of the nursing process for this client?

• A. Client will verbalize that depression symptoms have lifted
• B. Client will identify life stressors that may be contributing to depression
• C. Client's insomnia will be resolved as evidenced by 8 hours of sleep each night
• D. Client will identify a mental health counselor in the community with whom they can meet for ongoing therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the nursing process for a client with depression, short-term outcomes are goals that need to be achieved before advancing towards long-term outcomes. Identifying life stressors that may be contributing to the depression is a crucial initial step. This process helps the client work through feelings of grief or sadness before moving on to long-term goals like therapy and depression management. Choice A is not a short-term outcome as the lifting of depression symptoms is usually a long-term goal. Choice C focuses on resolving insomnia, which is a symptom of depression, but not directly addressing the root cause. Choice D involves identifying a mental health counselor for ongoing therapy, which is more aligned with a long-term treatment plan, rather than a short-term outcome.

5. A client undergoing presurgical testing before a total abdominal hysterectomy says to the nurse, 'After I have this surgery I know my husband will never come near me again.' Which response would the nurse give?

• A. You're underestimating how your husband will respond to your surgery.
• B. You're concerned about the effect on your sexual relations.
• C. You're worried that the surgery will change how others see you.
• D. You're concerned about how your husband will respond to your surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's expressed concern about her husband's reaction to the surgery, encouraging further discussion without imposing the nurse's assumptions. Choice A reframes the client's concern to focus on the husband's response, aligning more closely with the client's stated worry. Choice B makes an assumption about the client's concerns regarding sexual relations, which may not be the primary focus of her statement. Choice C shifts the attention to how others perceive the client, deviating from the client's specific reference to her husband's reaction, thus not addressing the client's main concern.

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