which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

2. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

3. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

4. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

5. A client has just died, and their son states, 'She was the most wonderful mother. There was no one who was a better mother than she was. She was perfect.' Which stage of grief is this son experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The son is experiencing the idealization stage of grief. During this stage, individuals tend to idealize the deceased person and remember them in a highly positive light, overlooking any negative aspects. This idealization serves as a coping mechanism to deal with the loss. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as denial involves refusing to accept the reality of the loss. Choice B, Anger, is incorrect as it involves feelings of resentment and frustration. Choice D, Shock, is incorrect as shock is the initial reaction to the loss and is different from idealizing the deceased individual.

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