Nursing Elites

1. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. When doing an admission assessment for a patient, the nurse notices that the patient pauses before answering questions about the health history. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Interview a family member instead.
• B. Wait for the patient to answer the questions.
• C. Remind the patient that you have other patients who need care.
• D. Give the patient an assessment form listing the questions and a pen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient pauses before answering questions about their health history, it is important for the nurse to be patient and wait for the patient to answer the questions. Patients from different cultures may take time to consider a question carefully before responding. By waiting patiently, the nurse shows respect for the patient's pace and helps foster a trusting relationship. Asking a family member to answer instead may not provide accurate information from the patient themselves. Reminding the patient about other patients needing care could make the patient feel rushed or unimportant. Giving the patient an assessment form and pen does not address the underlying reason for the pause and may come across as dismissive of the patient's need for time to respond thoughtfully.

4. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Change the IV solution bag.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a slowed IV rate by gravity with a healthy venous access site in a 2-year-old admitted for dehydration, the next step would be to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. This action ensures that the IV fluid can flow freely and reach the patient at the correct rate. Applying a warm compress proximal to the site (Choice A) is not indicated in this situation as it does not address the underlying issue of a slowed IV rate due to mechanical factors. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) or changing the IV solution bag (Choice D) are not the priority actions in this case. These choices do not address the issue of a slowed IV rate caused by kinks in the tubing or the height of the IV pole, which are more likely reasons for the problem observed.

5. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

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