Nursing Elites

1. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

2. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

3. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?

• A. Reflection
• B. Regression
• C. Repudiation
• D. Reconciliation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.

4. The client admitted for uncontrolled diabetes is worried about how to pay bills for the family while hospitalized. Which statement by the nurse is therapeutic?

• A. "You are worried about paying your bills?"
• B. "Don't worry; your bills will get paid eventually."
• C. "When was the last time you were admitted for hyperglycemia?"
• D. "You really shouldn't be drinking alcohol because of your diagnosis of diabetes."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic communication technique used in this scenario is reflection. By repeating the client's concern, the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings and encourages further exploration of the topic. Choice A is correct as it reflects the client's worry without offering false assurance, advice, or using professional jargon. Choice B dismisses the client's concerns with false reassurance. Choice C introduces professional jargon, which may hinder effective communication. Choice D provides advice, which can limit the client's expression of feelings and concerns.

5. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
• B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.

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