which information about a 60 year old patient with ms indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescri
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.

2. The nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from Vietnam. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent in many parts of Asia, including Vietnam, and the incidence of TB is higher in immigrants from Vietnam compared to the general U.S. population. Conducting tuberculosis screening is crucial to identify and address any cases promptly, especially in a community with recent immigrants from Vietnam. While teaching about contraceptive use, providing colonoscopy information, and testing for hepatitis may be relevant for certain individuals in the community, they are not as universally important as tuberculosis screening due to the increased risk of TB among Vietnamese immigrants.

3. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.

4. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.

5. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.

Similar Questions

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A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
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A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?

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