Nursing Elites

1. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?

• A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
• B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
• C. The Endocrine Theory
• D. The Rate of Living Theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.

2. The healthcare professional needs to validate which of the following statements pertaining to an assigned client?

• A. The client has a hard, raised, red lesion on his right hand.
• B. A weight of 185 lbs. is recorded in the chart.
• C. The client reported an infected toe.
• D. The client's blood pressure is 124/70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validation is the process of confirming that data are actual and factual. Data that can be measured can be accepted as factual, as in options 1, 3, and 4. The weight, blood pressure, and physical appearance of a lesion can be objectively verified. However, option C, the client reporting an infected toe, requires the nurse to directly assess the client's toe to confirm the statement. This choice involves subjective data that needs to be validated through direct observation, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and D provide data that can be measured objectively and verified without the need for further assessment.

3. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. A client has volunteered to take part in a research study. After participating for two months, he decides that he can no longer tolerate the study and decides to leave. What are the client's rights in this situation?

• A. The client has a right to be released from the study but must reimburse the researchers for charges incurred
• B. The client has a right to be released from the study without any liability
• C. The client has a right to be released from the study but is prohibited from participating in any future studies
• D. The client does not have the right to be released from the study; he must finish his participation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client voluntarily participates in a research study and later decides to withdraw, they have the right to be released from the study without any liability. It is unethical to force a participant to continue in a study against their will as this violates their autonomy and personal rights. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests that the client must reimburse the researchers for charges incurred, which is not typically the case unless agreed upon beforehand. Choice C is incorrect as there is no standard practice prohibiting a participant from future studies just because they withdrew from a current one. Choice D is incorrect because participants always have the right to withdraw from a research study at any time.

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