NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?
- A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
- B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
- C. The Endocrine Theory
- D. The Rate of Living Theory
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.
2. If you are caring for a patient of the Hindu culture, what may you anticipate regarding visitors?
- A. Limited visitors, respectful of privacy
- B. Family members only
- C. Large number of visitors/community support
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Hindu culture, there is a strong sense of community and support. It is common for a patient to receive a large number of visitors, indicative of the community coming together to provide emotional and practical support. This support network is crucial for the patient's well-being and healing process. Option A, limited visitors, is incorrect as the Hindu culture values community involvement. Option B, family members only, is incorrect as the support network extends beyond just family. Option D, none of the above, is incorrect as the Hindu culture typically involves community support and a significant number of visitors.
3. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
- A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
- B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
- C. There is low-grade fever.
- D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
4. Which of the following clients have barriers to accessing healthcare?
- A. A 36-year-old client who must use a wheelchair for mobility
- B. A 44-year-old client who is visiting the United States on a visa from India
- C. An 81-year-old client who is unable to drive
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the provided clients have barriers to accessing healthcare. Clients with physical limitations, such as the 36-year-old client using a wheelchair, may face challenges in mobility and accessing healthcare facilities. The 44-year-old client from India visiting the United States on a visa may encounter barriers related to language, cultural differences, or insurance coverage. The 81-year-old client who is unable to drive may struggle with transportation to healthcare appointments. Therefore, all three clients face different barriers to accessing healthcare, making 'All of the above' the correct answer.
5. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?
- A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
- B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
- C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
- D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.
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