Nursing Elites

1. While performing the physical examination, why does the nurse share information and briefly teach the patient?

• A. To help the patient feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation
• B. To build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner
• C. To assist the patient in understanding his or her disease process and treatment modalities
• D. To aid the patient in identifying questions about his or her disease and potential areas of needed education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing information and briefly teaching the patient during a physical examination helps build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner. This approach gives the patient a sense of control in a situation that can often be overwhelming. While sharing information may make the patient feel more comfortable, the primary goal is to enhance the patient's confidence in the examiner. Providing information does not necessarily directly assist the patient in understanding their disease process and treatment modalities, as this may require a more in-depth explanation. The main focus is on establishing a trusting relationship and empowering the patient during the examination, rather than solely aiding in identifying questions or areas needing education.

2. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

3. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

4. What is the primary route of transmission of MRSA?

• A. Shared needles
• B. Hands of healthcare workers
• C. Items in the healthcare environment
• D. Blood transfusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hands of healthcare workers.' MRSA is primarily transmitted via the unwashed hands of healthcare workers who can carry the Staphylococcus aureus bacterium from one patient to another. Shared needles, items in the healthcare environment, and blood transfusions are not the main routes of transmission for MRSA. Shared needles can transmit bloodborne pathogens, items in the healthcare environment can harbor bacteria but are not the primary mode for MRSA, and blood transfusions are not a common route for MRSA transmission.

5. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

• A. Behavior
• B. Cognition
• C. Affect and mood
• D. Perceptual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

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