Nursing Elites

1. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

2. The nurse is preparing to assess a hospitalized patient who is experiencing significant shortness of breath. How should the nurse proceed with the assessment?

• A. Have the patient lie down to obtain an accurate cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal assessment.
• B. Obtain a thorough history and physical assessment from the patient's family member.
• C. Immediately perform a complete history and physical assessment to obtain baseline information.
• D. Examine the body areas relevant to the problem and complete the rest of the assessment after the problem has resolved.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, it is crucial to prioritize the evaluation of areas directly related to the problem. Having the patient lie down may exacerbate the breathing difficulty. Therefore, the nurse should focus on examining the body areas pertinent to the issue, such as the respiratory and cardiac systems. Completing the rest of the assessment can be deferred until after addressing the immediate problem. Obtaining a complete history or involving family members should come after addressing the acute issue to ensure the patient's safety and comfort.

3. What action by the nurse is appropriate when examining a 16-year-old male teenager?

• A. Discuss health teaching with the teenager to promote wellness.
• B. Ask the parent to step out of the room during the history and physical examination to respect the teenager's privacy.
• C. Use age-appropriate communication when speaking to the teenager to ensure understanding.
• D. Provide feedback that his body is developing normally and discuss the wide variation among teenagers on the rate of growth and development.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the examination of a 16-year-old male teenager, it is essential to provide feedback that his body is developing normally and to discuss the wide variation among teenagers regarding growth and development. This reassures the teenager about his health status and addresses any concerns about physical development. It is important to recognize that adolescents are very conscious of their body image and often compare themselves to their peers, hence the need for such feedback. Asking the parent to step out of the room respects the teenager's privacy and promotes open communication between the nurse and the teenager. Using age-appropriate communication is crucial to ensure that the teenager understands the information provided. Asking the parent to stay in the room may not be ideal as it can inhibit open discussion, and talking to the teenager as if they were a younger child is inappropriate and may undermine their autonomy and understanding.

4. A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?

• A. Whenever needed
• B. At bedtime
• C. During the night
• D. During the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.

5. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

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