Nursing Elites

1. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

2. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

3. Which brain structure serves as the heat-regulating center?

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Pituitary Gland
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla Oblongata

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, ensuring it stays within a narrow range. Moreover, the hypothalamus controls various essential bodily functions, such as hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pituitary Gland primarily produces and releases hormones, the Pons is involved in functions like sleep, respiration, and bladder control, and the Medulla Oblongata controls vital functions like breathing and heart rate, but not body temperature regulation.

4. Which of the following is an organizational factor that affects workplace violence directed at nurses?

• A. Clients who have short hospital stays
• B. The presence of security guards
• C. Restricted client areas
• D. Understaffing of nursing personnel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understaffing of nursing personnel is a critical organizational factor that can contribute to workplace violence directed at nurses. When there are too few nurses on duty due to understaffing, it can lead to delays in care delivery and inadequate attention to clients' needs. This situation can result in heightened frustration, aggression, or violence from clients or their families towards the nursing staff. On the other hand, the presence of security guards (Choice B) may enhance safety in the workplace and deter violence, making it an incorrect choice. Clients who have short hospital stays (Choice A) and restricted client areas (Choice C) are not directly linked to organizational factors that promote workplace violence against nurses, making them incorrect choices.

5. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?

• A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
• B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
• C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
• D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.

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