Nursing Elites

1. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

2. All of the following factors may contribute to client falls EXCEPT:

• A. Contact dermatitis
• B. Urinary frequency
• C. Decreased visual acuity
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Client falls can result from various factors, both intrinsic and extrinsic. Intrinsic factors include health conditions like urinary frequency, which increases the need for bathroom visits, decreased visual acuity, and confusion. These factors can directly contribute to an increased risk of falls. However, contact dermatitis does not directly lead to falls. Contact dermatitis is a skin condition caused by contact with irritants or allergens and does not inherently predispose individuals to falling. Therefore, among the given options, contact dermatitis is the only factor that is not directly associated with an increased risk of falls.

3. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

4. Efforts by healthcare facilities to reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) include an awareness of which of the following?

• A. The CDC requires all states to report HAI rates from each hospital.
• B. Ensure that the restraints are tied to the side rails.
• C. The gastrointestinal tract is a common site for HAIs.
• D. Joint Commission considers death or serious injury from HAIs a sentinel event.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Efforts to reduce hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) involve being aware that the Joint Commission considers death or serious injury resulting from HAIs a sentinel event, which must be reported. While more than 20 states require reporting of HAI rates to the CDC, it is not a nationwide CDC requirement. The gastrointestinal tract is not a specific common site for HAIs; rather, bacteria are the primary cause. Ensuring restraints are properly secured is important for patient safety but not directly related to reducing HAIs.

5. A resident brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. One of the devices has a two-pronged plug. What rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?

• A. Controls stray electrical currents.
• B. Promotes efficient use of electricity.
• C. Shuts off the appliance if there is an electrical surge.
• D. Divides the electricity among the appliances in the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-pronged plug functions as a ground to dissipate stray electrical currents. This helps prevent electrical shocks and ensures the safety of the user. Choice B is incorrect because the number of prongs on a plug does not impact the efficient use of electricity. Choice C is incorrect because a three-pronged plug does not shut off the appliance during an electrical surge; that role is typically fulfilled by surge protectors. Choice D is incorrect as a three-pronged plug does not divide electricity among appliances in a room; it primarily serves as a safety measure to handle excess electrical currents.

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