Nursing Elites

1. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

2. As a charge nurse, what is your primary responsibility for a 50-year-old blind and deaf patient admitted to your floor?

• A. Inform others about the patient's deficits.
• B. Communicate patient safety concerns to your supervisor.
• C. Provide continuous updates to the patient about the social environment.
• D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment. Ensuring patient safety is crucial to prevent medical errors and adverse outcomes. By creating a safe environment, the nurse can protect the patient from harm and promote well-being. Option A is incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring patient safety rather than highlighting deficits. Option B is not the primary responsibility in this scenario, as the immediate concern is the patient's safety. Option C is irrelevant and does not address the patient's primary needs, which are safety and security.

3. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

4. A healthcare provider attempts to plug in a sequential compression device when they notice a tingling sensation in their hands while touching the cord. What is the next action of the healthcare provider?

• A. Attempt to plug the device into a different outlet
• B. Inspect the cord for damage; if none is present, continue to use the device
• C. Discontinue the device and send it to the maintenance department for inspection
• D. Notify the supervisor that the unit is at risk of an electrical fire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Feeling a tingling sensation when touching an electrical cord is a warning sign that the device may be malfunctioning. This sensation indicates a potential electrical current leak, which could pose a risk of harm. The correct action is to immediately discontinue the use of the device and send it to the maintenance department for inspection. Continuing to use the device without addressing the issue could lead to electric shock or fire hazards. Trying to plug the device into a different outlet does not address the underlying problem of potential device malfunction. Notifying the supervisor about the risk of an electrical fire is important, but the immediate action should be to stop using the device and have it inspected by maintenance professionals. Therefore, the best course of action is to discontinue the device and ensure it is checked thoroughly before further use.

5. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

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