which technique is correct when the nurse is assessing the radial pulse of a patient

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?

A. Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
B. Used to listen for low-pitched sounds
C. Should be firmly held against the person's skin to block out low-pitched sounds
D. Should be lightly held against the person's skin to listen for extra heart sounds and murmurs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.

3. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

4. Which is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection?

A. Thorough hand hygiene
B. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care
C. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions
D. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thorough hand hygiene is the most effective action for controlling the spread of infection as hands are a common source of transmission. Regular and routine hand hygiene helps prevent the movement of potentially infective materials. Wearing gloves and masks is important when providing direct client care to protect both the caregiver and the patient, but it is not as effective as thorough hand hygiene in preventing overall infection spread. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions is necessary for clients with known communicable diseases, but it is not as universally effective in preventing the spread of various infections. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics is not an appropriate measure for controlling the spread of infection as routine use can lead to superinfection and the development of resistant organisms.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.