Nursing Elites

1. What psychodynamic process is suggested by a client calling the emergency department during a suicide attempt?

• A. A cry for help
• B. A need for attention
• C. Ambivalence about dying
• D. An inability to stick to a decision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ambivalence about dying.' When a client calls the emergency department during a suicide attempt, it suggests conflicting feelings about living and dying. This act can indicate an unconscious desire to be stopped from dying, showing ambivalence between the wish to die and the wish to live. It is not primarily a cry for attention or a need to punish others. The client's intention of suicide alongside seeking help demonstrates the struggle between life and death, making ambivalence the key psychodynamic process at play.

2. What is a common reason why clients abuse alcohol?

• A. To blunt reality
• B. To precipitate euphoria
• C. To promote social interaction
• D. To stimulate the central nervous system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients often abuse alcohol to blunt reality. Alcohol, by depressing the central nervous system and distorting or altering reality, can reduce anxiety. It is not primarily used to precipitate euphoria; instead, it may lead to mood swings, impaired judgment, and aggressive behavior. While alcohol can be used as a social lubricant, individuals with alcohol use disorder often drink in isolation. Moreover, excessive alcohol consumption can result in inappropriate and aggressive behaviors that hinder social interactions. It's important to note that alcohol is a depressant, unlike stimulants such as amphetamines and cocaine.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?

• A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
• B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
• C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
• D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.

4. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

• A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
• B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
• C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
• D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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