Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose served when an individual takes action to reduce anxiety?

• A. Reduction of tension
• B. Denial of the situation
• C. Avoidance of physical discomfort
• D. Resolution in decision-making

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary purpose of taking action to reduce anxiety is to alleviate emotional tension and prevent the exacerbation of anxiety symptoms. By reducing tension, anxiety levels decrease, leading to a sense of comfort, safety, and security. Denial of the situation is not the goal when addressing anxiety; rather, acknowledging and managing it is crucial. While physical discomfort may accompany anxiety, the focus is on alleviating the emotional aspect to mitigate physical manifestations. Although mild anxiety can sometimes improve decision-making skills, higher levels of anxiety typically impede cognitive functions, making resolution in decision-making less likely.

2. Which action by a client who requires an above-the-knee amputation for peripheral arterial disease best indicates emotional readiness for the surgery?

• A. Explains the goals of the procedure
• B. Displays few signs of anticipatory grief
• C. Participates in learning perioperative care
• D. Verbalizes acceptance of permanent dependency needs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Participating actively in learning self-care demonstrates emotional acceptance of the need for surgery and readiness for planning post-surgery. Explaining the goals of the procedure may reflect intellectual readiness but not necessarily emotional readiness. A client who shows few signs of anticipatory grief may be suppressing emotions or in denial, which can hinder the emotional readiness. Verbalizing acceptance of permanent dependency needs suggests the client may require further education and emotional support, as it may not reflect a healthy emotional readiness for the surgery.

3. Which of the following is a true statement about palliative care?

• A. The goal of palliative care is to provide end-of-life care for a client as they transition toward death.
• B. Palliative care provides comfort and support for those who may have a terminal illness.
• C. Palliative care provides resources for funeral arrangements after death.
• D. Palliative care is a support network for family and friends after the death of a loved one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Palliative care is a type of care that focuses on providing support and comfort to individuals who may have a terminal illness or severe symptoms. It aims to improve the quality of life for both the individual receiving care and their family. While it can be provided in various settings, including hospitals, homes, or specialized facilities, the primary focus is on symptom management and addressing the physical, emotional, and spiritual needs of the individual. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care is not solely limited to end-of-life care but also includes managing symptoms and improving quality of life. Choice C is incorrect as palliative care is focused on providing care and support during the individual's life, not on funeral arrangements after death. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is primarily directed towards the individual receiving care, although it may also provide support to their family and friends during the care process.

4. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

5. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?

• A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
• B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
• C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.

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