Nursing Elites

1. What preparation should be made for a client undergoing a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiography test?

• A. Client must be NPO before the examination
• B. Enema should be administered before the examination
• C. Medicate the client with furosemide 20 mg IV 30 minutes before the examination
• D. No special orders are necessary for this examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that no special orders are necessary for a KUB radiography test. It is important to inform the client to remove any clothing, jewelry, or objects that may interfere with the test. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO before this examination. Option B is incorrect as enemas are not routinely administered prior to a KUB radiography test. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to medicate the client with furosemide before this examination.

2. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?

• A. Yellow-tinged skin
• B. Orange-colored sputum
• C. Thickening of the fingernails
• D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.

3. In which of the following conditions would a healthcare provider not administer erythromycin?

• A. Campylobacteriosis infection
• B. Legionnaires disease
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Multiple Sclerosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, involving the brain and spinal cord. Since MS is not caused by bacteria, administering erythromycin would not be appropriate. Campylobacteriosis infection, Legionnaires disease, and pneumonia are bacterial infections that can be treated with erythromycin, making them incorrect choices for conditions where erythromycin would not be administered.

4. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

• A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
• B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
• C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
• D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.

5. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?

• A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
• B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
• C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
• D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.

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