Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following questions is considered open-ended?

• A. What time did you last take your medications?
• B. Are you feeling okay right now?
• C. Please describe your symptoms.
• D. What day are you available for a follow-up appointment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Please describe your symptoms.' This question is considered open-ended because it encourages the respondent to provide a detailed and descriptive answer, fostering a more elaborate response. Open-ended questions are designed to prompt thoughtful and detailed responses. Choice A is a closed-ended question since it seeks a specific time for the medication intake. Choice B is also closed-ended as it can be answered with a simple 'yes' or 'no,' limiting the response. Choice D is closed-ended as it requests a specific day for the follow-up appointment, restricting the range of possible responses.

2. Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in the medical record by the nurse?

• A. Client's face is pale
• B. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable
• C. Nursing assistant reports client refused lunch
• D. Client feels nauseated

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Client feels nauseated.' Subjective data refers to the client's sensations, feelings, and perception of their health status. It can only be reported by the client as it is based on their personal experiences. The feeling of nausea is a subjective symptom that the client experiences and can provide insight into their health condition. Choices A and B represent objective data, as they describe observable or measurable findings that can be detected by the nurse. Choice C involves information reported by someone other than the client, making it indirect and not purely subjective.

3. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

• A. Slope of the earpieces should point forward toward the examiner's nose.
• B. It blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.
• C. The tubing length should be 14 to 18 inches to prevent sound distortion.
• D. Both fit and quality of the stethoscope are important.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

4. The healthcare professional has collected the following information on a patient: palpated blood pressure"?180 mm Hg; auscultated blood pressure"?170/100 mm Hg; apical pulse"?60 beats per minute; radial pulse"?70 beats per minute. What is the patient's pulse pressure?

• A. 10
• B. 70
• C. 80
• D. 100

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pulse pressure is the numerical difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is 170 mm Hg, and the diastolic blood pressure is 100 mm Hg. Therefore, the pulse pressure is calculated as 170 - 100 = 70 mm Hg. Pulse pressure reflects the stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings provided.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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