Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

2. An older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member is wandering outside, saying, "I can't find my way home."? The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Document the patient's mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
• B. Record the patient's answers to questions on the nursing assessment form.
• C. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview.
• D. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient's rights.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is confused and unable to answer questions. When the patient is unable to provide information, it is important to use secondary sources such as family members. The nurse's best action is to document the patient's mental status and obtain additional assessment data from the family member. This approach will help gather relevant information about the patient's condition. Asking an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview is not necessary as it is within the staff nurse's scope of practice. Calling for a mental health advocate is also unnecessary at this point as the priority is to assess the patient's condition and gather information from the family member.

3. Which of the following lists the recommended sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment when preparing to leave a patient's room?

• A. Gown, goggles, mask, gloves, and exit the room.
• B. Gloves, wash hands, remove gown, mask, and goggles.
• C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
• D. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. Gloves should always be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. Following the removal of gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and finally washing hands is recommended. Choice A is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice B is incorrect as the sequence is not in the recommended order. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed before goggles.

4. The functional health pattern assessment data states: 'Eats three meals a day and is of normal weight for height.' The nurse should draw which of the following conclusions about this data? Select all that apply.

• A. Client has an actual health problem
• B. Client has a wellness diagnosis
• C. Collaborative health problem needs to be written
• D. Possible nursing diagnosis exists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The assessment data provided indicates a healthy pattern of nutrition and a normal weight for height, suggesting a positive health status. This aligns with a wellness diagnosis, such as 'Potential for enhanced nutrition,' which focuses on improving health further. An actual health problem refers to a current health issue present in the client, which is not evident in this data. Collaborative health problems involve interprofessional collaboration and are not indicated based on the information provided. While a diet assessment may be needed to evaluate food quality, the initial data suggests a wellness-focused approach to care.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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