Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following descriptions best describes the function of the thyroid gland?

• A. The thyroid gland converts glucose into glycogen
• B. The thyroid gland secretes cortisol during times of stress
• C. The thyroid gland regulates body metabolism
• D. The thyroid gland affects skin pigmentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which work to regulate the metabolism of the body's cells. The primary function of the thyroid gland is to control the body's metabolic rate, affecting processes such as heart rate, temperature regulation, and energy levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thyroid gland is not involved in converting glucose into glycogen, secreting cortisol, or affecting skin pigmentation. Instead, the primary role of the thyroid gland is to regulate the metabolism and energy balance in the body.

2. When examining an infant, which area should the nurse examine first?

• A. Ear
• B. Nose
• C. Throat
• D. Abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant, the nurse should start by examining the least-distressing areas first before moving on to more invasive areas. The abdomen is typically the least distressing area to examine, so it should be assessed first. Examining the eye, ear, nose, and throat are considered more invasive and should be saved for last. Therefore, the correct choice is to examine the abdomen first to ensure a comfortable and less distressing examination process for the infant. Choices A, B, and C (Ear, Nose, Throat) are more invasive areas and should be examined after the abdomen.

3. Which desired outcome written by the nurse is correctly written and measurable?

• A. Client will have a normal bowel pattern by April 2
• B. The client will lose 4 lbs. within the next 2 weeks
• C. The nurse will provide skin care at least 3 times each day
• D. The client will breathe better after resting for 10 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An outcome statement must describe the observable client behavior that should occur in response to the nursing interventions. It consists of a subject, action verb, conditions under which the behavior is to be performed, and the level at which the client will perform the desired behavior. Option B is correctly written and measurable as it includes all the required elements: subject (client), action verb (lose), conditions (within the next 2 weeks), and the level at which the behavior should occur (4 lbs.). Option A lacks the conditions and a specific level, making it not measurable. Option C is a nursing intervention rather than a client goal. Option D does not provide a specific level at which the client should perform the desired behavior, making it not measurable as well.

4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

5. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

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