Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following actions can help prevent a fire in the area where a healthcare professional works?

• A. Using an adaptor when plugging in client equipment
• B. Marking equipment that is not working properly and using it carefully until it can be inspected by maintenance
• C. Notifying visitors or posting signs that indicate oxygen is in use in certain areas
• D. Keeping extra equipment stored in one area with other supplies and materials

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to help prevent a fire in a healthcare setting is to notify visitors or post signs indicating that oxygen is in use in certain areas. Oxygen is a combustible material, and awareness of its presence is crucial to prevent fire hazards. By informing all individuals in the facility about the use of oxygen through clear signs or notifications, the risk of improper use and potential fire accidents can be minimized. Choice A is incorrect because using an adaptor when plugging in client equipment is not directly related to fire prevention. Choice B is also incorrect as marking faulty equipment and using it until inspection does not directly address fire prevention. Choice D is not a recommended action for fire prevention; storing extra equipment with supplies does not address the specific fire risk associated with oxygen use.

2. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

3. When considering the concepts related to blood pressure, which statement best describes the concept of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

• A. MAP is the pressure of the arterial pulse.
• B. MAP reflects the stroke volume of the heart.
• C. MAP is the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.
• D. MAP is an average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures and reflects tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is the pressure that forces blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle. It is not the pressure of the arterial pulse (Choice A), nor does it directly reflect the stroke volume of the heart (Choice B). While MAP involves systolic and diastolic pressures, it is not simply an average of these two values as diastole lasts longer. Instead, MAP is closer to diastolic pressure plus one third of the pulse pressure. The best description of MAP is that it represents the pressure forcing blood into the tissues, averaged over the cardiac cycle.

4. While measuring a patient's blood pressure, which factor influences a patient's blood pressure?

• A. Pulse rate
• B. Pulse pressure
• C. Vascular output
• D. Peripheral vascular resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When measuring a patient's blood pressure, it is important to consider various factors that influence blood pressure. Peripheral vascular resistance plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. The level of blood pressure is affected by factors such as cardiac output, peripheral vascular resistance, volume of circulating blood, viscosity, and elasticity of the vessel walls. Pulse rate (Choice A) refers to the number of heartbeats per minute and is not a primary factor influencing blood pressure. Pulse pressure (Choice B) is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure and does not directly impact blood pressure regulation. Vascular output (Choice C) is not a recognized term in blood pressure regulation and is not a primary factor affecting blood pressure.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

Similar Questions