which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: African-Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. They tend to develop high blood pressure at younger ages and are more sensitive to salt, which increases their risk of hypertension. Additionally, studies have shown that African-Americans may respond differently to hypertensive drugs. Therefore, the 45-year-old African-American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension. The other choices do not specify factors that put them at a higher risk for hypertension compared to African-Americans.

2. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

3. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.

4. Why is it important to genotype HCV before initiating drug therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genotyping of HCV plays a crucial role in managing treatment as it helps determine the most effective therapy for the specific viral strain. It allows healthcare providers to personalize treatment regimens and predict response rates. The statement about acute HCV infection converting to chronic state is accurate, highlighting the need for appropriate management. Immune globulin and vaccines are not available for HCV, and Ribavirin is commonly used for chronic HCV infection. Improving appetite is essential in liver health as adequate nutritional intake supports hepatocyte regeneration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific importance of genotyping in HCV treatment or the significance of appetite improvement in liver function.

5. The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to teach the patient about the need to collect sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. It is important to obtain these specimens on different days rather than all at once. Blood tests are not used for tuberculosis testing, so teaching about blood tests is not relevant. While a chest x-ray is important in tuberculosis diagnosis, it is not a bacteriologic test. The appearance on a chest x-ray alone is not sufficient to diagnose TB as other diseases can have similar findings.

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