Nursing Elites

1. Which clinical findings indicate positive signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?

• A. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness
• B. Flat affect, decreased spontaneity, asocial behavior
• C. Hypomania, labile mood swings, episodes of euphoria
• D. Bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, loose associations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, and loose associations. These are positive symptoms of schizophrenia, reflecting a distortion or excess of normal function. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness, flat affect, decreased spontaneity, and asocial behavior are negative symptoms linked to schizophrenia, indicating a diminution or absence of normal function. Hypomania, labile mood swings, and episodes of euphoria are more characteristic of bipolar disorder, rather than schizophrenia.

2. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
• C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
• D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

3. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
• C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
• D. Pull the auricle down and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (� inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.

4. At a senior citizens meeting, a healthcare professional talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity?

• A. ''I give myself insulin injections in my thighs.''
• B. ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.''
• C. ''Here are my glucose readings that I noted on my calendar.''
• D. ''If I bathe more than once a week, my skin feels too dry.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client states, ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.'' This statement indicates peripheral neuropathy, which can lead to a lack of sensation in the lower extremities. When clients are unable to feel pressure or pain in their feet, they are at a high risk for skin impairment, such as cuts, wounds, or ulcers. Option A is not directly related to impaired skin integrity, as self-administering insulin in the thighs does not pose a direct risk to skin integrity. Option C shows good glucose monitoring, which is important but does not directly indicate impaired skin integrity. Option D suggests dry skin due to infrequent bathing, which is more related to general skin care and not as predictive of impaired skin integrity as the statement in Option B.

5. According to Erikson's theory, which behavior would the nurse expect a preschooler to exhibit?

• A. The child develops the superego.
• B. The child plays beside other children.
• C. The child concentrates on work and play.
• D. The child becomes casual about body appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to Erikson's theory, a preschooler develops the superego or conscience during the initiative versus guilt stage. This stage occurs around ages 3 to 6 years old. The development of the superego is crucial for the child to start understanding and internalizing societal and parental values. Choice B is incorrect because playing beside other children typically occurs during the autonomy versus shame and doubt stage, which is seen in toddlers. Choice C is incorrect as concentrating on work and play is more characteristic of the industry versus inferiority stage, typically seen in school-aged children. Choice D is incorrect because becoming casual about body appearance is more aligned with the identity versus role confusion stage, which is seen in adolescents who have a marked preoccupation with appearance and body image.

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