Nursing Elites

1. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

• A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
• B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
• C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
• D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When changing the route of administration from PO to IV, the absorption process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action of the medication and consequently a quicker effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased drug tolerance and higher doses are not typical outcomes of changing the route of administration. Protein binding does not increase with a change to IV administration; rather, it is the bioavailability and onset of action that are affected. Moreover, an increased therapeutic index reduces the risk of drug toxicity, contrary to what is stated in choice D.

3. On her first visit to the neonatal intensive care unit to see her preterm newborn, the mother's only comment to the nurse is, 'My baby looks so fragile. Do you think my child will make it?' Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "Many infants born as small as yours have done just fine."
• B. "The staff is confident in your child's prognosis because preterm babies do look like this at first."
• C. "It's understandable that your baby looks fragile to you. What have you learned about the condition?"
• D. "Your baby is not as fragile as it appears. Do you find it so frightening that you can't touch your child?"

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's response should aim to convey acceptance and encourage the mother to express her concerns. By saying, "It's understandable that your baby looks fragile to you. What have you learned about the condition?", the nurse acknowledges the mother's feelings and prompts her to share her understanding, fostering further communication and addressing any misconceptions. Choices A and B dismiss the mother's concerns by making general statements and do not encourage dialogue. Choice D implies judgment and may deter the mother from opening up about her fears.

4. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of "suppression"?

• A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."
• B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."
• C. "It's the other guy's fault! He was going too fast."
• D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "I don't remember anything about what happened to me." This statement indicates the use of suppression, which is the willful act of putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is deliberately excluding memories of the traumatic event to protect their self-esteem. The other choices do not reflect suppression: Choice B shows avoidance or deflection, Choice C demonstrates blame shifting, and Choice D indicates empathy towards another individual.

5. Which approach would the healthcare provider use when managing the care of a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

• A. Creating an anxiety-free environment for the client
• B. Assisting the client with the development of healthy, adaptive coping mechanisms
• C. Avoiding triggers that produce anxiety in the client
• D. Providing reinforcement that the client's anxiety issues can be eliminated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider would assist the client with the development of healthy, adaptive coping mechanisms. GAD is characterized by the maladaptive use of worrying as a coping mechanism. The ultimate goal is for the healthcare provider to help the client replace the ineffective worrying with effective, healthy coping mechanisms. Creating an anxiety-free environment is not feasible or recommended; the goal is to help the client learn to deal with anxiety in a healthy manner. While identifying triggers is important, avoiding all triggers that produce anxiety is often impractical. Providing reinforcement that anxiety issues can be eliminated is not appropriate as anxiety is a normal human experience that needs to be managed effectively rather than eliminated completely.

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