Nursing Elites

1. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

2. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
• C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
• D. Pull the auricle down and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (� inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.

3. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
• B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
• C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.

5. The client is being instructed on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?

• A. Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the inhaler.
• B. Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth.
• C. Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose.
• D. Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure optimal benefits from a metered-dose inhaler, the client should be instructed to compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through the mouth. This technique facilitates the medication to reach deep into the lungs, allowing for an optimal bronchodilation effect. Option B is correct as it promotes the proper coordination of inhaler compression and inhalation, ensuring effective drug delivery. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not support deep lung penetration of the medication, which is essential for its effectiveness in treating respiratory conditions.

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