NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.
2. A client had a first-trimester abortion and has been unable to function for 3 months. Which type of grief is the client experiencing?
- A. Complex bereavement
- B. Anticipatory
- C. Disenfranchised
- D. Complicated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing disenfranchised grief. Disenfranchised grief refers to grief over a loss that is not socially recognized or acknowledged. In this case, grief after an abortion falls into this category. It can lead to prolonged emotional distress as the loss may not be openly acknowledged or supported by others. Complex bereavement is characterized by dysfunctional grieving that extends beyond 12 months. Anticipatory grief occurs when the loss is expected or predictable, allowing individuals to start the grieving process before the actual loss. Complicated grief is marked by an inability to progress through the grief stages, leading to intense feelings of depression, anger, and emptiness, often coupled with a preoccupation with the deceased.
3. Which type of environment would be most suitable for a confused client?
- A. Familiar
- B. Variable
- C. Challenging
- D. Stimulating
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate environment for a confused client is a familiar one. A familiar environment provides security and safety, reducing stress for the confused client. Confused individuals struggle to adapt to constant changes, making a variable environment unsuitable. A challenging environment would likely increase anxiety and frustration in a confused client. Similarly, a stimulating environment could overwhelm the confused client, exacerbating their confusion.
4. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Nutrition
- B. Elimination
- C. Activity
- D. Safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, ensuring safety is a top priority. Suicide prevention measures must be incorporated into the care plan as individuals with depression are at increased risk. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the critical need to prevent harm or self-harm in depressed individuals.
5. Which priority action would the nurse manager use to help the nurse who may be experiencing burnout?
- A. Transfer the nurse to another unit in the facility.
- B. Help the nurse choose a position on a low-stress unit.
- C. Encourage the nurse to attend educational programs.
- D. Help the nurse identify personal responses to job stress.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse manager to help a nurse experiencing burnout is to assist the nurse in identifying personal responses to job stress. This involves recognizing work stressors in the environment and evaluating coping strategies to determine their effectiveness. While transferring the nurse to another unit could be a solution, the initial focus should be on self-awareness and coping strategies. Choosing a position on a low-stress unit and attending educational programs can be beneficial in reducing burnout, but they are not the primary steps to address burnout when it occurs.
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