Nursing Elites

1. Which characteristic is associated with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Manic
• B. Rebellious
• C. Hypoactive
• D. Perfectionistic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with anorexia nervosa often exhibit perfectionistic traits, characterized by rigid standards and extreme self-discipline as a way to maintain control and fulfill personal and societal expectations. The focus on achieving an ideal body image through strict dietary habits and excessive exercise is a common manifestation of this perfectionism. The incorrect choices are: A) 'Manic' is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; individuals with this disorder are more likely to experience anxiety and depression. B) 'Rebellious' does not align with the usual behavior seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa, who tend to comply with societal expectations rather than rebel against them. C) 'Hypoactive' does not describe the characteristic behavior of individuals with anorexia nervosa, who often engage in excessive physical activity as a means of weight loss.

2. A 20-year-old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?

• A. Trust vs. mistrust
• B. Initiative vs. guilt
• C. Autonomy vs. shame
• D. Intimacy vs. isolation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The young adult, at 20 years old, is in the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation according to Erikson's psychosocial theory. This stage typically occurs during young adulthood, between the ages of approximately 19 and 40. The primary conflict in this stage revolves around the development of intimate, loving relationships with others. This stage focuses on establishing close bonds and connections with others, seeking emotional closeness and commitment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Trust vs. mistrust is the stage that occurs in infancy, Initiative vs. guilt is in early childhood, and Autonomy vs. shame is in toddlerhood. These stages each represent different developmental challenges and conflicts that individuals face at various points in their lives.

3. Which priority action would the nurse manager use to help the nurse who may be experiencing burnout?

• A. Transfer the nurse to another unit in the facility.
• B. Help the nurse choose a position on a low-stress unit.
• C. Encourage the nurse to attend educational programs.
• D. Help the nurse identify personal responses to job stress.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse manager to help a nurse experiencing burnout is to assist the nurse in identifying personal responses to job stress. This involves recognizing work stressors in the environment and evaluating coping strategies to determine their effectiveness. While transferring the nurse to another unit could be a solution, the initial focus should be on self-awareness and coping strategies. Choosing a position on a low-stress unit and attending educational programs can be beneficial in reducing burnout, but they are not the primary steps to address burnout when it occurs.

4. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
• B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
• C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
• D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a postoperative client's respiratory rate increases, it is essential to determine the underlying cause. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can lead to tachypnea (increased respiratory rate). Therefore, the priority intervention is to assess if pain is the contributing factor. Encouraging increased ambulation may worsen oxygen desaturation in a client with a rising respiratory rate. Offering a high-carbohydrate snack is not indicated as it can increase carbon metabolism; instead, consider providing an alternative energy source like Pulmocare liquid supplement. Forcing fluids may exacerbate respiratory congestion in a client with a compromised cardiopulmonary system, potentially leading to fluid overload. Therefore, determining the role of pain in tachypnea is crucial for appropriate management.

5. The client with cholecystitis is being instructed about dietary choices. Which meal best meets the dietary needs of this client?

• A. Steak, baked beans, and a salad
• B. Broiled fish, green beans, and an apple
• C. Pork chops, macaroni and cheese, and grapes
• D. Avocado salad, milk, and angel food cake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, should follow a low-fat diet to reduce symptoms. Broiled fish, green beans, and an apple (Option B) is the most suitable choice as it is low in fat. Steak, baked beans, and a salad (Option A) provide a high amount of fat and protein, which may exacerbate symptoms of cholecystitis. Pork chops, macaroni and cheese, and grapes (Option C) and avocado salad, milk, and angel food cake (Option D) contain high-fat foods that are not recommended for individuals with cholecystitis. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice for a client with cholecystitis.

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