Nursing Elites

1. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation?

• A. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation.
• B. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient.
• C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.
• D. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of an emergency where a pregnant woman is choking, chest thrusts are performed to clear the airway obstruction. This technique is used instead of abdominal thrusts to avoid potential harm to the fetus. While chest thrusts are not as effective as abdominal thrusts in clearing obstructions, they are the preferred method in this specific situation. Choices A and B are incorrect as chest thrusts are not typically performed during CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation or when assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. Choice D is incorrect as chest thrusts are indeed warranted when assisting a pregnant woman who is choking.

2. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

3. What is the flap of tissue that covers the trachea upon swallowing called?

• A. Epidermis
• B. Endocardium
• C. Epiglottis
• D. Epistaxis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epiglottis. The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing to prevent food or liquid from entering the airway. Choice A, Epidermis, is the outer layer of the skin and is not related to the trachea. Choice B, Endocardium, is the inner lining of the heart chambers and is also unrelated to the trachea. Choice D, Epistaxis, refers to a nosebleed and is not the correct term for the tissue covering the trachea.

4. When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which action by the nurse best ensures client safety?

• A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
• B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
• C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
• D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, the best action to ensure client safety is to put bed rails up on the side of the bed opposite from the nurse. This is important because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, so having bed rails on the opposite side prevents the client from falling out of bed. Option A, which suggests securely grasping the client's arm and leg, can potentially cause client injury to the skin or joints. Options C and D, correctly positioning and using a turn sheet, and lowering the head of the client's bed slowly, respectively, are useful techniques during client turning but are of lower priority in terms of safety compared to the use of bed rails.

5. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

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