the nurse teaches the use of a gait belt to a male caregiver whose wife has right sided weakness and needs assistance with ambulation the caregiver pe
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.

2. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

3. According to psychodynamic theory, what purpose do delusions serve?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to psychodynamic theory, delusions serve as a defense mechanism against anxiety triggered by real or perceived threats. Delusions are the individual's unconscious way of protecting themselves from overwhelming feelings of anxiety. Magical thinking, on the other hand, involves believing that one's thoughts can influence external events. This is not the same as delusions. Delusions are not a way of interpreting external stimuli but rather a defense mechanism. Expressing anger and hostility is typically associated with defense mechanisms like displacement or projection, not delusions.

4. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.

5. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.

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Which action should the nurse implement when providing wound care instructions to a client who does not speak English?
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