Nursing Elites

1. When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?

• A. Standing on the female patient's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
• B. Standing on the female patient's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
• C. Standing behind the female patient, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
• D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the female patient, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.

2. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

3. On her first visit to the neonatal intensive care unit to see her preterm newborn, the mother's only comment to the nurse is, 'My baby looks so fragile. Do you think my child will make it?' Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "Many infants born as small as yours have done just fine."
• B. "The staff is confident in your child's prognosis because preterm babies do look like this at first."
• C. "It's understandable that your baby looks fragile to you. What have you learned about the condition?"
• D. "Your baby is not as fragile as it appears. Do you find it so frightening that you can't touch your child?"

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's response should aim to convey acceptance and encourage the mother to express her concerns. By saying, "It's understandable that your baby looks fragile to you. What have you learned about the condition?", the nurse acknowledges the mother's feelings and prompts her to share her understanding, fostering further communication and addressing any misconceptions. Choices A and B dismiss the mother's concerns by making general statements and do not encourage dialogue. Choice D implies judgment and may deter the mother from opening up about her fears.

4. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?

• A. Schizophrenia
• B. Depression
• C. Alzheimer's disease
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.

5. The client with cholecystitis is being instructed about dietary choices. Which meal best meets the dietary needs of this client?

• A. Steak, baked beans, and a salad
• B. Broiled fish, green beans, and an apple
• C. Pork chops, macaroni and cheese, and grapes
• D. Avocado salad, milk, and angel food cake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, should follow a low-fat diet to reduce symptoms. Broiled fish, green beans, and an apple (Option B) is the most suitable choice as it is low in fat. Steak, baked beans, and a salad (Option A) provide a high amount of fat and protein, which may exacerbate symptoms of cholecystitis. Pork chops, macaroni and cheese, and grapes (Option C) and avocado salad, milk, and angel food cake (Option D) contain high-fat foods that are not recommended for individuals with cholecystitis. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice for a client with cholecystitis.

Similar Questions