the nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments which action by the nurse is best
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. Many culturally based therapies can complement Western treatments and medications. It is essential for the nurse to integrate both traditional folk treatments and Western therapies to provide holistic care. Some culturally based treatments can effectively complement Western medicine in treating diseases. Encouraging the patient to continue some culturally based treatments during hospitalization can enhance their overall well-being. Asking the patient to discontinue cultural treatments or teaching that folk remedies interfere with Western therapies may not align with the patient's beliefs and could hinder their care.

2. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

3. A college athlete sustained a complete transection of the spinal cord while practicing on a trampoline. The health care provider explained that return of function to the lower extremities is not likely. Two weeks later, the client verbalizes the need to practice for an upcoming tournament. Which conclusion would the nurse make about the client's statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exhibiting denial.' Denial is a common defense mechanism when facing a serious health issue. The individual rejects the existence of the problem due to the overwhelming anxiety and emotional distress it causes. In this case, the athlete's desire to practice for an upcoming tournament despite being informed about the unlikely return of lower extremity function indicates denial of the severity of their condition. Choice B, 'Verbalizing a fantasy,' is incorrect as a fantasy involves creating imagined events to fulfill unconscious wishes, which is not evident here. Choice C, 'No longer able to adapt,' is incorrect because the client is actually demonstrating a maladaptive coping mechanism by denying the reality of their situation. Choice D, 'Motivated to recover mobility,' is incorrect as the client's goal of practicing for a tournament does not align with the realistic expectation of recovering mobility after a complete spinal cord transection.

4. When caring for a patient who speaks a different language and an interpreter is unavailable, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When faced with a language barrier and lacking an interpreter, using simple gestures can help convey meaning to the patient. This approach can assist in basic communication and understanding. Talking slowly may not be effective if the patient does not understand the language, and speaking loudly can be perceived as aggressive or intimidating. Repeating words may not aid comprehension if the patient is unfamiliar with the language. Therefore, using gestures is the most appropriate option in this situation.

5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

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