Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to perform a physical assessment. Which statement is true about the inspection phase of the physical assessment?

• A. Usually yields little information
• B. Takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information
• C. May be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner
• D. Requires a thorough examination of the patient's body before proceeding with palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the inspection phase of a physical assessment, it is essential to take time as it can reveal a significant amount of information. Initially, it may feel uncomfortable for the examiner to focus solely on observing the patient without immediate action. Rushing through inspection is not recommended as it can lead to missing important cues. Train yourself to be thorough during inspection by observing carefully and taking the time needed to gather essential data. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because inspection typically provides valuable information, may feel uncomfortable at first but is necessary for a comprehensive assessment, and does not involve a quick glance but requires a focused and detailed observation.

2. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

3. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

4. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

5. What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?

• A. the patient's ability to pay for the costs of their care
• B. how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs
• C. the patient's physical status and condition
• D. the patient's psychosocial status and condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.

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