Nursing Elites

1. Which contraindication should be assessed for prior to administering an immunization to a child?

• A. Mild cold symptoms
• B. Chronic asthma
• C. Depressed immune system
• D. Allergy to eggs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering immunizations to children, it is crucial to assess for contraindications. A depressed immune system, such as that seen in conditions like HIV or due to chemotherapy, is a significant contraindication. Immunizations may not be safe or effective in children with compromised immune systems. Mild cold symptoms, although not ideal, are not a contraindication for routine immunizations. Chronic asthma, while a consideration, is not a direct contraindication for routine immunizations. Allergy to eggs is a contraindication for specific vaccines, such as influenza vaccine that is grown in eggs, but it is not a contraindication for all immunizations.

2. Patients have a right to ______________.

• A. only enough information so they can comply with care
• B. ALL of their health-related information
• C. small amounts of information so they do not get nervous
• D. moderate amounts of information unless they are old

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients have a legal right to access all of their health-related information. This includes details about their health condition, treatment options, test results, and any other relevant data. Providing patients with all their health-related information empowers them to make informed decisions about their care, promotes transparency in the healthcare process, and respects their autonomy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they restrict the information patients should receive based on assumptions or limitations, which goes against the principle of patient autonomy and their right to access their complete health-related information.

3. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

• A. Institute complete bed rest for the client
• B. Assess uterine tone to determine condition
• C. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
• D. Measure and record blood loss each shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

4. A client is taking a walk down the hallway when she suddenly realizes that she needs to use the restroom. Although she tries to make it to the bathroom on time, she is incontinent of urine before reaching the toilet. What type of incontinence does this situation represent?

• A. Relex incontinence
• B. Urge incontinence
• C. Total incontinence
• D. Functional incontinence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Functional incontinence occurs when a client develops an urge to void but may not be able to reach the toilet in time. In this scenario, the client had the urge to use the restroom but was unable to make it in time, leading to incontinence. Functional incontinence may be related to conditions that cause the client to forget bladder sensation until the last minute, such as cognitive changes, or the client may have mobility problems that prevent her from reaching the bathroom in time. Choice A, Reflex incontinence, is incorrect as reflex incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine due to hyperreflexia of the detrusor muscle. Choice B, Urge incontinence, is not the correct answer as urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void. Choice C, Total incontinence, is also incorrect as it refers to the continuous and unpredictable loss of urine, not specifically related to the inability to reach the toilet in time.

5. Why should direct care providers avoid glued-on artificial nails?

• A. Interfere with dexterity of the fingers.
• B. Could fall off in a patient's bed.
• C. Harbor microorganisms.
• D. Can scratch a patient.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

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