Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is comparing the concepts of religion and spirituality. Which statement describes an appropriate component of one's spirituality?

• A. Belief in and worship of God or gods
• B. Being closely tied to one's ethnic background
• C. Attendance at a specific church or place of worship
• D. A connection with something larger than oneself and belief in transcendence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spirituality refers to a connection with something larger than oneself and a belief in transcendence. The other responses do not apply to spirituality. Choice A, 'Belief in and worship of God or gods,' and choice C, 'Attendance at a specific church or place of worship,' are more aligned with religious practices. Choice B, 'Being closely tied to one's ethnic background,' is not a defining aspect of spirituality or religion as it pertains more to cultural identity rather than spiritual beliefs.

2. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?

• A. Angina at rest
• B. Thrombus formation
• C. Dizziness
• D. Falling blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a critical complication of cardiac catheterization that the nurse should monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure. A thrombus can form in the blood vessels, obstructing blood flow and potentially leading to serious consequences such as embolism or organ ischemia. While angina at rest, dizziness, and falling blood pressure are potential complications following cardiac catheterization, they are not typically associated with the immediate post-procedural period. Monitoring for thrombus formation is essential to ensure early detection and intervention, which can prevent serious complications.

3. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old patient who appears to have an irregular respiratory pattern. How would the nurse assess this child's respirations?

• A. Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute.
• B. Child's pulse and respirations should be simultaneously checked for 30 seconds and then multiplied by 2.
• C. Child's respirations should be checked for a minimum of 5 minutes to identify any variations in his or her respiratory pattern.
• D. Patient's respirations should be counted for 15 seconds and then multiplied by 4.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a child's respiratory pattern, the nurse should count respirations for a full minute. This duration provides a comprehensive view of the child's breathing pattern, ensuring abnormalities are not missed. Counting for only 30 seconds may not capture irregularities effectively. Checking respirations for 5 minutes is excessive and unnecessary for a routine assessment. Counting for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 is not as precise as a full-minute count. Pulse and respirations should not be checked simultaneously; instead, the nurse should count respirations unobtrusively while appearing to take the child's pulse. Therefore, the correct approach is to count the child's respirations for 1 full minute to obtain an accurate assessment.

4. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

5. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?

• A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
• B. Only the patient
• C. Only the healthcare proxy
• D. The doctor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.

Similar Questions