Nursing Elites

1. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
• B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
• C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
• D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.

2. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
• B. ''Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
• C. ''It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
• D. ''You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.

3. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

4. Which of the following is NOT a warning sign that compensatory mechanisms in a patient in shock are failing?

• A. Increasing heart rate above normal for the patient's age.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses
• C. Decreasing level of consciousness
• D. Increasing blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient in shock, increasing blood pressure is not a sign that compensatory mechanisms are failing. As shock progresses and compensatory mechanisms fail, systolic blood pressure will decrease, leading to hypotension, which is a late and ominous sign in these patients. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are warning signs of failing compensatory mechanisms in shock: an increasing heart rate above normal, absent peripheral pulses, and decreasing level of consciousness, respectively. An increasing blood pressure is not indicative of compensatory failure in shock; instead, it may be a sign of compensatory mechanisms still trying to maintain perfusion pressure.

5. Which of the following complaints is characteristic of a patient with Bell's Palsy?

• A. Paralysis of the right or left arm
• B. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve
• C. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy
• D. A side effect of a stroke

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bell's Palsy is characterized by the dysfunction of the Facial nerve, which is cranial nerve VII. This dysfunction leads to facial muscle weakness or paralysis, not affecting the arms. Choice A is incorrect as Bell's Palsy specifically involves facial muscles, not the arms. Choice C is incorrect as it incorrectly associates Bell's Palsy with a different condition, Cerebral Palsy. Choice D is incorrect as Bell's Palsy is not a side effect of a stroke but rather a distinct condition with its own etiology.

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