NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
- B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
- C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
- D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
2. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?
- A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
- B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
- C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
- D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.
3. Which of the following is the most common type of malignant brain tumor in the United States?
- A. Meningioma
- B. Glioblastoma multiforme
- C. Acoustic neuroma
- D. Pituitary adenoma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common malignant brain tumor in the United States, accounting for a significant portion of cases. It is known for its aggressive nature and poor prognosis. Surgical resection, followed by radiation and chemotherapy, is the standard treatment approach for glioblastoma multiforme. Meningioma, acoustic neuroma, and pituitary adenoma are also types of brain tumors but are not as common as glioblastoma multiforme in the United States.
4. A patient is undergoing a stress test on a treadmill and turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?
- A. I'm feeling extremely thirsty and will get some water after this.
- B. I can feel my heart racing.
- C. My shoulder and arm are hurting.
- D. My blood pressure reading is 158/80
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: My shoulder and arm are hurting.' Unilateral arm and shoulder pain are classic symptoms of myocardial ischemia, indicating possible heart issues. In this scenario, immediate intervention is required, and the stress test should be halted. Choice A about feeling thirsty does not indicate an acute medical issue. Choice B mentioning heart racing is expected during a stress test. Choice D, a blood pressure reading of 158/80, while slightly elevated, does not present an immediate concern compared to the symptoms of arm and shoulder pain suggesting cardiac distress.
5. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections
- D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition. Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.
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