Nursing Elites

1. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
• B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
• C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
• D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.

2. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

• A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
• B. Platelet count of 150,000
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

3. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.

4. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

5. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

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