Nursing Elites

1. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?

• A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
• B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
• C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
• D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.

2. Which of the following statements best describes postural drainage as part of chest physiotherapy?

• A. Tapping on the chest wall to loosen secretions
• B. Squeezing the abdomen to increase expansion of the upper chest
• C. Using gravity to move secretions in the lung tissue
• D. Dilating the trachea to facilitate better release of secretions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used in chest physiotherapy for clients with accumulated lung secretions. It involves positioning the client to utilize gravity in moving secretions from the lungs. Choice A, tapping on the chest wall, describes percussion, not postural drainage. Choice B, squeezing the abdomen, is not a correct description of postural drainage. Choice D, dilating the trachea, is not related to postural drainage but may be associated with airway clearance techniques.

3. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?

• A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
• B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
• C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
• D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.

4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week.
• B. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
• C. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
• D. I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if Im feeling better in a couple weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.

5. A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?

• A. Do not let this prescription run out.
• B. The medication may cause gingival hyperplasia.
• C. Periodic serum drug levels are needed.
• D. Watch for excessive facial hair growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.

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