Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate suggestion regarding the diet for an 18-month-old child experiencing mild diarrhea and 'mushy' stools, but tolerating fluids and solid foods?

• A. Applesauce, bananas, wheat toast
• B. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken
• C. Gelatin, strained cabbage, and custard
• D. Fluids only until the 'mushy' stools stop

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a child with mild diarrhea who is tolerating fluids and solid foods, the most appropriate diet suggestion would be to continue feeding a normal diet to prevent dehydration, reduce stool frequency and volume, and hasten recovery. Foods that are well tolerated during diarrhea include bland but nutritional options like complex carbohydrates (rice, wheat, potatoes, cereals), yogurt with live cultures, cooked vegetables, and lean meats. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken provide a balance of nutrients and are easy on the digestive system. Options A and C contain foods that may worsen diarrhea; applesauce and gelatin can be high in sugars which can exacerbate diarrhea, and cabbage may be hard to digest for some individuals. Option D of offering fluids only can affect the child's nutritional status by not providing enough essential nutrients during the recovery period.

2. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

• A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
• B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
• C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
• D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

3. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
• B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
• C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
• D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.

4. Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward.
• B. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed.
• C. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
• D. Observe the patient's breathing pattern.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, requesting the patient to walk with eyes closed is crucial. This test assesses the patient's balance, gait, and coordination, which can be impaired in hepatic encephalopathy due to altered mental status and brain function. Walking with eyes closed challenges the patient's sensory input and proprioception, providing valuable information on improvement or deterioration in neurological function. Asking the patient to extend both arms forward is used to check for asterixis, a sign often seen in hepatic encephalopathy, but it is not specific for evaluating treatment effectiveness. Performing the Valsalva maneuver is unrelated to assessing hepatic encephalopathy and is more commonly used in cardiac evaluations. Observing the patient's breathing pattern may be important in other conditions but is not directly relevant to evaluating treatment effectiveness for hepatic encephalopathy.

5. When reading a lab report, you notice that a patient's sample is described as having anisocytosis. Which of the following most accurately describes the patient's condition?

• A. The patient has an abnormal condition of skin cells.
• B. The patient's red blood cells vary in size.
• C. The patient has a high level of fat cells and is obese.
• D. The patient's cells are indicative of necrosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anisocytosis is a term that indicates variation in the size of red blood cells. When a patient is described as having anisocytosis, it means their red blood cells exhibit differences in size. This condition can be detected in blood samples and may indicate underlying blood disorders. The other choices are incorrect: Choice A refers to a skin cell condition, Choice C relates to obesity and fat cells, and Choice D suggests necrosis, none of which are associated with anisocytosis or red blood cell abnormalities. It is important to recognize specific terms like anisocytosis in laboratory reports to understand the potential implications for the patient's health.

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