NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. What is the most appropriate suggestion regarding the diet for an 18-month-old child experiencing mild diarrhea and 'mushy' stools, but tolerating fluids and solid foods?
- A. Applesauce, bananas, wheat toast
- B. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken
- C. Gelatin, strained cabbage, and custard
- D. Fluids only until the 'mushy' stools stop
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a child with mild diarrhea who is tolerating fluids and solid foods, the most appropriate diet suggestion would be to continue feeding a normal diet to prevent dehydration, reduce stool frequency and volume, and hasten recovery. Foods that are well tolerated during diarrhea include bland but nutritional options like complex carbohydrates (rice, wheat, potatoes, cereals), yogurt with live cultures, cooked vegetables, and lean meats. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken provide a balance of nutrients and are easy on the digestive system. Options A and C contain foods that may worsen diarrhea; applesauce and gelatin can be high in sugars which can exacerbate diarrhea, and cabbage may be hard to digest for some individuals. Option D of offering fluids only can affect the child's nutritional status by not providing enough essential nutrients during the recovery period.
2. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Administer PRN morphine.
- C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
- D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.
3. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?
- A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
- B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
- C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
- D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.
4. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Tremors
- B. Low Urine Output
- C. Exaggerated arm movements
- D. Risk for Falls
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.
5. The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.
- A. convulsive movements
- B. sleep apnea
- C. atonic movements
- D. flaccidity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.
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