NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. What is the most appropriate suggestion regarding the diet for an 18-month-old child experiencing mild diarrhea and 'mushy' stools, but tolerating fluids and solid foods?
- A. Applesauce, bananas, wheat toast
- B. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken
- C. Gelatin, strained cabbage, and custard
- D. Fluids only until the 'mushy' stools stop
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a child with mild diarrhea who is tolerating fluids and solid foods, the most appropriate diet suggestion would be to continue feeding a normal diet to prevent dehydration, reduce stool frequency and volume, and hasten recovery. Foods that are well tolerated during diarrhea include bland but nutritional options like complex carbohydrates (rice, wheat, potatoes, cereals), yogurt with live cultures, cooked vegetables, and lean meats. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken provide a balance of nutrients and are easy on the digestive system. Options A and C contain foods that may worsen diarrhea; applesauce and gelatin can be high in sugars which can exacerbate diarrhea, and cabbage may be hard to digest for some individuals. Option D of offering fluids only can affect the child's nutritional status by not providing enough essential nutrients during the recovery period.
2. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?
- A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
- B. Platelet count of 150,000
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.
3. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?
- A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
- B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
- C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
- D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.
4. The healthcare professional calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving an antibiotic. The patient is to receive 100mL of the antibiotic over 30 minutes. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare professional set the IV to deliver?
- A. 11
- B. 19
- C. 26
- D. 33
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the IV flow rate, you can use the formula: Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters to be infused x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. Substituting the given values, you get 100 mL x 10 drops/mL / 30 minutes = 33 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 33, as the healthcare professional should set the IV to deliver 33 drops per minute to infuse the antibiotic correctly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drops per minute based on the provided values.
5. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed?
- A. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber
- B. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber
- C. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration
- D. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned if 400 mL of blood is observed in the collection chamber as it may indicate the patient is at risk of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber is expected initially after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. While pain with deep inspiration should be treated, it is not as urgent as the risk of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema is not uncommon in a patient with pneumothorax and is usually harmless. However, a large amount of blood in the collection chamber is a more critical finding that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
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