Nursing Elites

1. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer bicarbonate.
• B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
• C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
• D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

2. A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen
• B. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin
• C. Bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant
• D. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

3. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?

• A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
• B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• C. Lactated Ringer's
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.

4. The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Ribbon-like stools
• C. Profuse projectile vomiting
• D. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where a part of the bowel slides into the next section, causing an obstruction. The classic presentation includes severe abdominal pain that is crampy, intermittent, and may cause the child to draw knees to the chest. While vomiting can occur, it is not typically projectile in nature. A key hallmark of intussusception is the passage of bright red blood and mucus in the stools, often described as currant jelly-like. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not typical signs of intussusception and should not be expected in a child with this condition.

5. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client

• A. Has increased airway obstruction
• B. Has improved airway obstruction
• C. Needs to be suctioned
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.

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