Nursing Elites

1. Where is the duodenum located in the digestive system?

• A. It is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach.
• B. It is the section of the digestive system where the gall bladder delivers bile.
• C. It is the section of the small intestine where the pancreas delivers digestive juices.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach. It is where the majority of digestion takes place in the gut. The pancreas delivers digestive juices containing amylase and lipase, while the gall bladder delivers bile to aid in the digestion of fats. Choice A incorrectly states that the duodenum is the third section of the small intestine, which is inaccurate. Choice B incorrectly associates the duodenum with the gall bladder, which is not where the duodenum is located. Choice C incorrectly states that the duodenum is where the pancreas delivers digestive juices, which is partly correct but not the main function of the duodenum. Therefore, the correct answer is 'None of the above' as none of the choices accurately describe the location or functions of the duodenum.

2. When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient's blood pressure?

• A. 200/92
• B. 200/100
• C. 100/200/92
• D. 200/100/92

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating blood pressure, it is crucial to note the points at which Korotkoff sounds change. In adults, the last audible sound indicates the diastolic pressure. In this case, the Korotkoff sounds muffle at 100 mm Hg and disappear at 92 mm Hg. Therefore, the blood pressure should be recorded as systolic/diastolic, which is 200/92. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct points where the Korotkoff sounds change during blood pressure measurement.

3. A client is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns. The nurse encourages the client to verbalize feelings about sleep and inability to maintain adequate sleep habits. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. The client most likely has a mental illness that should be treated before addressing sleep issues
• B. The client may have unrecognized anxiety or fear that could be contributing to poor sleep habits
• C. The client may become tired once they start talking
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients experiencing disrupted sleep patterns may have underlying anxiety or fear contributing to their poor sleep habits. Encouraging clients to verbalize their feelings about sleep allows them to address any negative emotions that may be impacting their ability to sleep well. By working through these issues, clients may experience increased peace and relaxation, which can help promote better sleep. Option A is incorrect because assuming a mental illness without evidence can lead to mismanagement of the client's care. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the underlying emotional factors affecting the client's sleep patterns. Option D is incorrect as there is a specific rationale for encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings about sleep.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to perform a physical assessment. Which statement is true about the inspection phase of the physical assessment?

• A. Usually yields little information
• B. Takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information
• C. May be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner
• D. Requires a thorough examination of the patient's body before proceeding with palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the inspection phase of a physical assessment, it is essential to take time as it can reveal a significant amount of information. Initially, it may feel uncomfortable for the examiner to focus solely on observing the patient without immediate action. Rushing through inspection is not recommended as it can lead to missing important cues. Train yourself to be thorough during inspection by observing carefully and taking the time needed to gather essential data. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because inspection typically provides valuable information, may feel uncomfortable at first but is necessary for a comprehensive assessment, and does not involve a quick glance but requires a focused and detailed observation.

5. Which statement by the client with chronic obstructive lung disease indicates an understanding of the major reason for the use of occasional pursed-lip breathing?

• A. ''This action of my lips helps to keep my airway open.''
• B. ''I can expel more air when I pucker up my lips to breathe out.''
• C. ''My mouth doesn't get as dry when I breathe with pursed lips.''
• D. ''By prolonging breathing out with pursed lips, the smaller areas in my lungs don't collapse.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have difficulty exhaling fully due to the weak alveolar walls from the disease process. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the airways during exhalation. This is the major reason for using pursed-lip breathing in individuals with chronic obstructive lung disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the main purpose of pursed-lip breathing, which is to prevent alveolar collapse and improve exhalation in these patients.

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