NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?
- A. Peritonitis
- B. Appendicitis
- C. Intussusception
- D. Hirschsprung's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.
2. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Back Pain
- D. Difficulty Urinating
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.
3. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?
- A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
- B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
- C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
- D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.
4. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
5. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Asterixis and lethargy
- B. Jaundiced sclera and skin
- C. Elevated total bilirubin level
- D. Liver 3 cm below costal margin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.
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