Nursing Elites

1. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?

• A. Peritonitis
• B. Appendicitis
• C. Intussusception
• D. Hirschsprung's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.

2. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

3. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
• B. Examine the child's throat
• C. Collect a sputum specimen
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

4. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

5. Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

• A. Teach about symptoms of variceal bleeding
• B. Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing
• C. Discuss the need to increase caloric intake
• D. Review the patient's current medication list

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for a patient diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) would be to review the patient's current medication list. This is important because certain medications can increase the risk for NAFLD, and they should be identified and possibly eliminated. Teaching about symptoms of variceal bleeding is not necessary as variceal bleeding is not a concern in a patient with asymptomatic NAFLD. Drawing blood for hepatitis serology testing is not indicated as NAFLD is not associated with hepatitis. Discussing the need to increase caloric intake is also not appropriate since weight loss is usually recommended in the management of NAFLD.

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